Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following eye disorders manifests with red eye, pain, and visual acuity changes?

• A. Bacterial conjunctivitis
• B. Acute closed-angle glaucoma
• C. Chronic open-angle glaucoma
• D. Blepharitis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Acute closed-angle glaucoma presents with symptoms such as a red eye, severe pain, and rapid visual acuity changes due to increased intraocular pressure. This condition is considered an ophthalmologic emergency. Bacterial conjunctivitis typically presents with redness, discharge, and irritation but is not associated with severe pain or visual changes. Chronic open-angle glaucoma is usually asymptomatic until advanced stages and does not typically present with acute pain. Blepharitis involves inflammation of the eyelid margins and is characterized by redness and irritation, but it does not cause severe pain or acute visual changes.

2. A client is brought to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident in which she suffered a spinal cord injury at the level of C5. Which of the following assessments should be the priority?

• A. Monitoring urinary output
• B. Monitoring heart rate and rhythm
• C. Monitoring respiratory rate
• D. Monitoring the client's pain levels

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is monitoring heart rate and rhythm. With a C5 spinal cord injury, monitoring heart rate and rhythm is crucial as it can impact autonomic regulation. This level of injury can affect cardiac function due to the disruption of sympathetic nerve fibers. Monitoring urinary output may be important to assess for urinary retention, but it is not the priority in this scenario. While monitoring respiratory rate is essential in all patients, in this case, cardiovascular stability takes precedence. Pain management is important but is not the priority when assessing a client with a C5 spinal cord injury.

3. An experiment is designed to determine specific cell types involved in cell-mediated immune response. The experimenter is interested in finding cells that attack cells that have specific antigens. Which cells should be isolated?

• A. Lymphokine-producing cells
• B. Cytotoxic T cells
• C. Helper T cells
• D. Macrophages

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cytotoxic T cells are the key players in cell-mediated immunity as they directly attack cells displaying specific antigens. Lymphokine-producing cells (Choice A) are involved in cytokine production, while Helper T cells (Choice C) assist in activating other immune cells. Macrophages (Choice D) are phagocytic cells that engulf and digest pathogens, but they are not the primary cells responsible for directly attacking cells with specific antigens in cell-mediated immunity.

4. A patient is prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for the treatment of endometriosis. What key instruction should the nurse provide regarding the use of this medication?

• A. Take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels.
• B. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset.
• C. Medroxyprogesterone should be discontinued if side effects occur.
• D. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken once a week to maintain effectiveness.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should provide regarding the use of medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for endometriosis is to take the medication at the same time each day. This helps to maintain consistent hormone levels and ensures the effectiveness of the treatment. Choice B is incorrect because medroxyprogesterone should be taken without regard to meals. Choice C is incorrect because side effects should be reported to the healthcare provider for evaluation rather than discontinuing the medication without medical advice. Choice D is incorrect as medroxyprogesterone is usually taken daily, not weekly, for the treatment of endometriosis.

5. A male patient is receiving testosterone therapy for hypogonadism. What adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during this therapy?

• A. Increased risk of cardiovascular events
• B. Increased risk of liver dysfunction
• C. Increased risk of prostate cancer
• D. Increased risk of bone fractures

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Testosterone therapy for hypogonadism is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular events, such as myocardial infarction and stroke. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of cardiovascular issues is crucial during testosterone therapy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because testosterone therapy is not typically associated with an increased risk of liver dysfunction, prostate cancer, or bone fractures.

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