ATI RN
Final Exam Pathophysiology
1. How often should a patient be administered a tetanus toxoid?
- A. Every year
- B. Every 10 years
- C. Every 2 years
- D. Every 5 years
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Tetanus toxoid should be administered every 10 years to ensure continued protection against tetanus infection. The correct answer is 'Every 10 years.' Choice A ('Every year') is incorrect as the frequency is too frequent. Choice C ('Every 2 years') is incorrect as it is too frequent for tetanus toxoid administration. Choice D ('Every 5 years') is incorrect as it does not align with the recommended interval for tetanus toxoid booster doses.
2. When communicating with a client who has cognitive impairment, which of the following will Nurse Dory use?
- A. Complete explanations with multiple details
- B. Pictures or gestures instead of words
- C. Stimulating words and phrases to capture the client’s attention
- D. Short words and simple sentences
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Nurse Dory will use short words and simple sentences when communicating with a client who has cognitive impairment. This approach is effective because it helps improve understanding and comprehension for individuals with cognitive challenges. Choice A is incorrect because complete explanations with multiple details may overwhelm or confuse clients with cognitive impairment. Choice B is not the most effective option as using pictures or gestures instead of words may not always be practical or necessary. Choice C is also not ideal as stimulating words and phrases may cause distraction rather than enhance communication for clients with cognitive impairment.
3. A male patient with hypogonadism is receiving testosterone therapy. What is the most serious adverse effect the nurse should monitor for?
- A. Increased risk of breast cancer
- B. Increased risk of cardiovascular events
- C. Increased risk of liver dysfunction
- D. Increased risk of prostate cancer
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Testosterone therapy can lead to an increased risk of cardiovascular events such as heart attacks and strokes, especially in older patients. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of cardiovascular issues is crucial when administering testosterone therapy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because testosterone therapy does not typically lead to an increased risk of breast cancer, liver dysfunction, or prostate cancer.
4. What is a common factor related to all forms of heart failure?
- A. Peripheral edema
- B. Pulmonary edema
- C. Reduced cardiac output
- D. Jugular vein distention
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Reduced cardiac output. All forms of heart failure share this common factor, which occurs when the heart is unable to pump enough blood to meet the body's needs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. While peripheral edema and pulmonary edema can be symptoms of heart failure, they are not universal to all forms. Jugular vein distention is a sign of right heart failure, not a common factor across all types of heart failure.
5. Which of the following would the nurse see in a client with thrombocytopenia?
- A. A decreased platelet cell count
- B. Decreased white blood cell count
- C. Increased red blood cell count
- D. An increased platelet cell count
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Thrombocytopenia is characterized by a decreased platelet cell count, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choice B, a decreased white blood cell count, is not typically associated with thrombocytopenia. Choice C, an increased red blood cell count, is not a characteristic finding in thrombocytopenia. Choice D, an increased platelet cell count, is the opposite of what is observed in thrombocytopenia.
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