ATI RN
Pathophysiology Final Exam
1. When educating a patient starting on oral contraceptives, what should the nurse include in the teaching plan regarding potential side effects?
- A. Weight gain, mood changes, and nausea
- B. Increased appetite, insomnia, and fatigue
- C. Breast tenderness, headaches, and dizziness
- D. Fatigue, hair loss, and joint pain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Weight gain, mood changes, and nausea are common side effects of oral contraceptives. Weight gain may occur due to fluid retention or changes in metabolism. Mood changes can be caused by hormonal fluctuations. Nausea is a common side effect that usually improves after a few months of use. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect common side effects associated with oral contraceptives. Increased appetite, insomnia, breast tenderness, headaches, dizziness, fatigue, hair loss, and joint pain are not typically reported side effects of oral contraceptives.
2. A male patient is receiving testosterone therapy for hypogonadism. What adverse effect should the nurse be most concerned about?
- A. Increased risk of breast cancer
- B. Increased risk of liver dysfunction
- C. Increased risk of cardiovascular events
- D. Increased risk of prostate cancer
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Cardiovascular events such as stroke and myocardial infarction are the most concerning adverse effects of testosterone therapy, especially in older patients. Choice A, increased risk of breast cancer, is not a common adverse effect of testosterone therapy in males. Choice B, increased risk of liver dysfunction, is a potential adverse effect but is not the most concerning. Choice D, increased risk of prostate cancer, is a consideration in patients with a history of prostate cancer or those with prostate carcinoma, not typically in patients receiving testosterone therapy for hypogonadism.
3. A patient presents with a chronic cough, night sweats, and weight loss. A chest X-ray reveals upper lobe cavitary lesions. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Tuberculosis
- B. Pneumonia
- C. Lung cancer
- D. Sarcoidosis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tuberculosis. Cavitary lesions in the upper lobes are classic findings seen in tuberculosis. This infectious disease commonly presents with symptoms such as chronic cough, night sweats, and weight loss. Pneumonia (Choice B) typically does not present with cavitary lesions on chest X-ray. Lung cancer (Choice C) may present with similar symptoms but is less likely to cause cavitary lesions in the upper lobes. Sarcoidosis (Choice D) usually presents with bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy and non-caseating granulomas, different from the cavitary lesions described in the case.
4. Which of the following patients are at higher risk for developing oral cancer?
- A. A female who has taken oral contraceptives for the last 4 years
- B. Both an adult male with a history of alcoholism and a middle-aged male who smokes a pipe
- C. An adult female who eats spicy foods regularly
- D. An older adult female who chews gum frequently
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Both an adult male with a history of alcoholism and a middle-aged male who smokes a pipe.' Alcohol consumption and tobacco use, such as smoking a pipe, are well-known risk factors for developing oral cancer. These two factors significantly increase the likelihood of developing oral cancer compared to the other choices. Taking oral contraceptives, eating spicy foods regularly, and chewing gum frequently are not established risk factors for oral cancer, making them less likely to lead to the development of this type of cancer.
5. A 30-year-old male has been brought to the emergency department by his wife because of a severe headache, nausea, vomiting, and fever. A lumbar puncture is performed, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis reveals a high protein count, low glucose, and numerous polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs). Which organism is the most likely cause of these findings?
- A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
- B. Neisseria meningitidis
- C. Escherichia coli
- D. Listeria monocytogenes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis findings of high protein count, low glucose, and numerous polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs) are classic for bacterial meningitis. Among the choices, Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most likely cause in this case. Streptococcus pneumoniae is a common cause of bacterial meningitis in adults, especially presenting with symptoms such as severe headache, nausea, vomiting, and fever. Neisseria meningitidis is another common cause of bacterial meningitis but is more frequently associated with a different CSF profile. Escherichia coli is a common cause of neonatal meningitis, not typically seen in a 30-year-old male. Listeria monocytogenes is more commonly associated with meningitis in immunocompromised individuals and neonates, and typically presents differently in CSF analysis.
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