ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. What is one therapeutic use for nitroglycerin?
- A. Relief or prevention of anginal attacks
- B. Diuresis and mobilization of excess fluid
- C. Decreasing nausea and vomiting
- D. Relief of anxiety
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Nitroglycerin is primarily used for the relief or prevention of anginal attacks. It works by dilating blood vessels, increasing blood flow and oxygen to the heart muscle, thereby relieving chest pain caused by angina. The medication is not indicated for diuresis, antiemetic effects, or anxiety relief. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the therapeutic use of nitroglycerin.
2. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following dietary instructions should the nurse provide?
- A. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
- B. Limit your intake of calcium-rich foods.
- C. Avoid consuming dairy products.
- D. Increase your intake of fiber-rich foods.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can cause potassium loss. Clients should increase their intake of potassium-rich foods to prevent hypokalemia.
3. A client is receiving combination chemotherapy. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of an oncologic emergency?
- A. Dry oral mucous membranes
- B. Nausea and vomiting
- C. Temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F)
- D. Anorexia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F) can indicate an infection, which is considered an oncologic emergency in clients receiving chemotherapy due to the increased risk of sepsis in immunocompromised individuals. Dry oral mucous membranes (Choice A), nausea and vomiting (Choice B), and anorexia (Choice D) are common side effects of chemotherapy but do not typically indicate an oncologic emergency requiring immediate intervention.
4. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an Opioid agonist to a client who has acute pain. Which of the following complications should the provider monitor?
- A. Urinary retention
- B. Tachypnea
- C. Hypertension
- D. Irritating cough
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is urinary retention. Opioid agonists like morphine can suppress the awareness of bladder fullness, leading to urinary retention. This complication can result in significant discomfort and potential urinary tract issues if not promptly addressed. Tachypnea (increased respiratory rate) is a common side effect of opioids but is not a specific complication related to urinary retention. Hypertension is not typically associated with opioid agonists and is more commonly seen with opioid antagonists. An irritating cough is not a known complication of opioid agonists and is not directly related to the effect opioids have on the urinary system.
5. A client receiving chemotherapy reports nausea and vomiting. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering?
- A. Ondansetron
- B. Metoclopramide
- C. Promethazine
- D. Lorazepam
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ondansetron. Ondansetron is a commonly used antiemetic for managing nausea and vomiting in clients undergoing chemotherapy. It works by blocking serotonin to reduce these symptoms effectively. Metoclopramide (choice B) is another antiemetic but is more commonly used for gastric motility disorders. Promethazine (choice C) is an antihistamine with antiemetic properties, but ondansetron is often preferred for chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting due to its efficacy and fewer side effects. Lorazepam (choice D) is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and insomnia, not typically for managing nausea and vomiting in this context.
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