Nursing Elites

1. What is one therapeutic use for nitroglycerin?

• A. Relief or prevention of anginal attacks
• B. Diuresis and mobilization of excess fluid
• C. Decreasing nausea and vomiting
• D. Relief of anxiety

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Nitroglycerin is primarily used for the relief or prevention of anginal attacks. It works by dilating blood vessels, increasing blood flow and oxygen to the heart muscle, thereby relieving chest pain caused by angina. The medication is not indicated for diuresis, antiemetic effects, or anxiety relief. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the therapeutic use of nitroglycerin.

2. A client receives a new prescription for NRTIs for HIV treatment. Which statement should the nurse include during teaching about these medications?

• A. These medications work by inhibiting enzymes to prevent HIV replication.
• B. These medications work by preventing protein synthesis within the HIV cell.
• C. These medications work by weakening the cell wall of the HIV virus.
• D. These medications work by blocking HIV entry into cells.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: NRTIs inhibit the enzyme reverse transcriptase, essential for HIV replication. By preventing this process, viral replication is hindered, ultimately reducing the viral load in the body. Option A correctly explains the mechanism of action of NRTIs in treating HIV infection. Choices B, C, and D describe mechanisms of action that do not align with how NRTIs work in HIV treatment. B is incorrect because NRTIs do not target protein synthesis within the HIV cell. C is incorrect as NRTIs do not affect the cell wall of the HIV virus. D is incorrect because NRTIs do not block HIV entry into cells.

3. A client has been prescribed Phenelzine for depression. Which of the following indicates that the client has developed an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Orthostatic hypotension
• B. Hearing loss
• C. Gastrointestinal bleeding
• D. Weight loss

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Orthostatic hypotension is a known adverse effect of Phenelzine, a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) used for depression. It is caused by a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions, leading to symptoms like dizziness or fainting. Monitoring for orthostatic hypotension is crucial during Phenelzine therapy to prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hearing loss, gastrointestinal bleeding, and weight loss are not typically associated with Phenelzine use.

4. A client is receiving spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Serum Sodium 144 mEq/L
• B. Urine output 120 mL in 4 hrs
• C. Serum Potassium 5.2 mEq/L
• D. Blood Pressure 140/90 mmHg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to potassium retention. The nurse should notify the provider and withhold the medication to prevent further elevation of potassium levels, which can result in serious cardiac complications. The other findings (Serum Sodium 144 mEq/L, Urine output 120 mL in 4 hrs, and Blood Pressure 140/90 mmHg) are within normal ranges and not directly related to spironolactone therapy.

5. What is the appropriate medication to administer for a suspected opioid overdose in a patient who comes to the hospital?

• A. Exenatide
• B. Naloxone
• C. Heparin
• D. Tolvaptan

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Naloxone. Naloxone is the drug of choice for managing opioid overdoses as it competitively antagonizes opioid receptors, reversing the respiratory depression and sedation caused by opioids. It is crucial in the emergency treatment of opioid overdose to prevent fatal outcomes. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Exenatide is a medication used to treat diabetes, heparin is an anticoagulant, and tolvaptan is a diuretic. None of these medications are indicated for the management of opioid overdose.

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