Nursing Elites

1. What is one therapeutic use for nitroglycerin?

• A. Relief or prevention of anginal attacks
• B. Diuresis and mobilization of excess fluid
• C. Decreasing nausea and vomiting
• D. Relief of anxiety

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Nitroglycerin is primarily used for the relief or prevention of anginal attacks. It works by dilating blood vessels, increasing blood flow and oxygen to the heart muscle, thereby relieving chest pain caused by angina. The medication is not indicated for diuresis, antiemetic effects, or anxiety relief. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the therapeutic use of nitroglycerin.

2. A healthcare professional is about to administer Propranolol to a patient. The healthcare professional takes the patient's apical pulse and documents it as 58 bpm. How should the healthcare professional proceed?

• A. Administer the medication as prescribed
• B. Administer half of the normal dose
• C. Consider the extended-release form of the medication
• D. Withhold administration of the medication and notify the healthcare provider

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a patient's apical pulse is 58 bpm, it is below the normal range. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that can further lower the heart rate. Therefore, it is crucial to withhold the medication and notify the healthcare provider to evaluate the patient's condition. Administering Propranolol in this situation can exacerbate bradycardia, leading to serious complications. Choosing to administer the medication as prescribed (Choice A) can put the patient at risk. Administering half of the normal dose (Choice B) without healthcare provider guidance is not appropriate in this case. Considering the extended-release form of the medication (Choice C) does not address the immediate concern of bradycardia and is not the best course of action.

3. A client has a new prescription for Metoprolol to treat hypertension. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Stop taking the medication if your heart rate is below 70/min.
• B. Take the medication with food.
• C. Avoid sudden changes in position.
• D. Increase your fluid intake while taking this medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client starting Metoprolol is to avoid sudden changes in position. Metoprolol can cause orthostatic hypotension, leading to dizziness and falls if the client changes positions quickly. By advising the client to make position changes slowly, the nurse helps prevent these adverse effects and promotes safety.

4. Which of the following is considered a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?

• A. Mexiletine
• B. Amiodarone
• C. Quinidine
• D. Procainamide

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Procainamide is a class IA antiarrhythmic drug that acts as a sodium channel blocker by blocking fast sodium channels. Mexiletine is a class IB antiarrhythmic drug, not class IA. Amiodarone is a class III antiarrhythmic, and Quinidine is a class IA antiarrhythmic but not a sodium channel blocker.

5. What are the actions of the drug metformin?

• A. Decreases hepatic glucose production and intestinal glucose absorption
• B. Increases sensitivity to insulin
• C. Short-term sedation
• D. Both A and B

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Metformin has dual actions by decreasing hepatic glucose production and intestinal glucose absorption, which helps in reducing blood glucose levels. Additionally, it increases sensitivity to insulin, aiding in its proper utilization within the body. Choice A is correct as metformin acts by decreasing hepatic glucose production and intestinal glucose absorption. Choice B is also correct as metformin increases sensitivity to insulin. Choice C, short-term sedation, is incorrect as metformin is not known for causing sedation. Therefore, the correct answer is D because metformin performs both of these actions.

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