Nursing Elites

1. What instruction should the healthcare provider include to minimize an adverse effect of Clomipramine for OCD in an adolescent client?

• A. Wear sunglasses when outdoors.
• B. Check your temperature daily.
• C. Take this medication in the morning.
• D. Add extra calories to your diet.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Wear sunglasses when outdoors.' To minimize the anticholinergic effect of Clomipramine, the client should wear sunglasses when outdoors to reduce photophobia. This adverse effect is common with tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) use. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Checking temperature daily, timing of medication intake, or adding extra calories to the diet are not directly related to minimizing adverse effects of Clomipramine.

2. What is the antidote for Warfarin?

• A. Naloxone
• B. Vitamin K
• C. Glucagon
• D. Vitamin B

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct antidote for Warfarin is Vitamin K. Warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Administering Vitamin K helps reverse its effects by replenishing these factors. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Naloxone is used to reverse opioid overdose, Glucagon is used to treat severe low blood sugar, and Vitamin B is not the antidote for Warfarin.

3. A client has a new prescription for Verapamil to treat angina. Which of the following client statements should indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of Verapamil?

• A. I am frequently constipated.
• B. I have been urinating more frequently.
• C. My skin is peeling.
• D. I have ringing in my ears.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'I am frequently constipated.' Constipation is a common adverse effect of Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker. Verapamil can slow down intestinal motility, leading to constipation as a side effect. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with adverse effects of Verapamil. Increased urination is not a common side effect, skin peeling is not related to Verapamil use, and ringing in the ears is not a typical adverse effect of this medication.

4. A client is receiving Morphine IV for pain management. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to monitor for adverse effects?

• A. Monitor the client's respiratory rate every 15 minutes.
• B. Monitor the client's blood pressure every 30 minutes.
• C. Monitor the client's oxygen saturation every hour.
• D. Monitor the client's heart rate every 5 minutes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to monitor for adverse effects of Morphine IV is to check the client's respiratory rate every 15 minutes. Respiratory depression is a potentially life-threatening adverse effect of Morphine. Monitoring the respiratory rate frequently allows for early detection and intervention if needed. Monitoring blood pressure, oxygen saturation, or heart rate alone may not provide early signs of respiratory depression, which is a critical adverse effect of Morphine IV.

5. A healthcare provider is reviewing a client's health record and notes that the client is experiencing episodes of hypokalemia. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider identify as a cause of the client's hypokalemia?

• A. Captopril
• B. Lisinopril
• C. Furosemide
• D. Spironolactone

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that acts on the kidneys to increase urine production. This increased urine output can lead to the excessive excretion of potassium, resulting in hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels and considering supplementation may be necessary when a patient is on furosemide to prevent or manage hypokalemia.

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