ATI RN
ATI Proctored Pharmacology Test
1. A client is receiving warfarin therapy. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of warfarin?
- A. Nausea
- B. Epistaxis
- C. Diarrhea
- D. Dyspepsia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Epistaxis, or nosebleeds, can be an indication of excessive anticoagulation while on warfarin therapy. Warfarin is a blood thinner that helps prevent blood clots. Epistaxis can occur as a result of the blood-thinning effects of warfarin, leading to increased bleeding tendencies, including nosebleeds. Nausea, diarrhea, and dyspepsia are not typically associated with warfarin therapy; therefore, they are not the adverse effects the nurse should identify in a client receiving warfarin.
2. A client is being discharged with a new prescription for Metronidazole. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
- B. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
- C. Avoid dairy products while taking this medication.
- D. Take this medication with antacids.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Metronidazole is to avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication. Consuming alcohol with Metronidazole can lead to a disulfiram-like reaction, causing symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and flushing. It is crucial to advise clients to abstain from alcohol during the course of treatment to prevent adverse reactions and ensure the effectiveness of the medication.
3. A client is taking Somatropin to stimulate growth. The healthcare provider should plan to monitor the client's urine for which of the following?
- A. Bilirubin
- B. Protein
- C. Potassium
- D. Calcium
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client is taking Somatropin to stimulate growth, monitoring calcium levels in the urine is crucial. Excessive calcium excretion can occur in the urine of clients taking Somatropin, increasing the risk of renal calculi. Therefore, monitoring calcium levels is essential to assess for potential kidney stone formation. Bilirubin, protein, and potassium are not specifically monitored in the urine of clients taking Somatropin for growth stimulation.
4. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an Opioid agonist to a client who has acute pain. Which of the following complications should the healthcare provider monitor?
- A. Urinary retention
- B. Tachypnea
- C. Hypertension
- D. Irritating cough
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is urinary retention. Opioid agonists like morphine can suppress the sensation of a full bladder, leading to urinary retention. Monitoring for this complication is crucial to prevent bladder distention and related issues. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Tachypnea (increased respiratory rate), hypertension (high blood pressure), and irritating cough are not typically associated with opioid agonist administration for pain management.
5. When teaching a client how to use nitroglycerin transdermal ointment for angina, which instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Remove the prior dose before applying a new dose.
- B. Rub the ointment directly into your skin until it is no longer visible.
- C. Cover the applied ointment with a clean gauze pad.
- D. Apply the ointment to the same skin area each time.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction is to remove the prior dose before applying a new dose. This helps prevent toxicity by ensuring the client does not inadvertently apply an excessive amount of nitroglycerin.
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