ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client with Preeclampsia is receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. 2+ deep tendon reflexes
- B. 2+ pedal edema
- C. 24 mL/hr urinary output
- D. Respirations 12/min
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion for Preeclampsia, a urinary output less than 25 to 30 mL/hr is indicative of magnesium sulfate toxicity and should be promptly reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Option A, 2+ deep tendon reflexes, are expected findings in a client receiving magnesium sulfate and do not require immediate reporting. Option B, 2+ pedal edema, is a common symptom of preeclampsia and typically does not require immediate intervention. Option D, respirations 12/min, are within the normal range and do not indicate an immediate need for reporting to the provider.
2. A healthcare provider is educating a client who has a new prescription for Simvastatin. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare provider include?
- A. Take this medication with food.
- B. Avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
- C. Take this medication in the morning.
- D. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction that the healthcare provider should include is to 'Avoid drinking grapefruit juice.' Grapefruit juice can increase the blood levels of Simvastatin, leading to potential side effects like muscle pain and liver damage. Instructing the client to avoid grapefruit juice helps prevent these adverse effects and ensures the medication's efficacy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking Simvastatin with food, at a specific time, or increasing potassium-rich foods intake are not essential instructions for this medication.
3. A client is receiving discharge instructions for long-term use of Prednisone. Which of the following instructions should be included?
- A. Stop taking the medication if you experience swelling.
- B. The provider will monitor your weight regularly.
- C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- D. You may notice decreased appetite while on this medication.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because long-term use of Prednisone can lead to weight gain, necessitating regular weight monitoring by the healthcare provider to manage any potential complications. Prednisone often causes fluid retention, leading to weight gain, hence the need for weight monitoring. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because swelling is not a typical reason to stop Prednisone, taking it on an empty stomach is not usually required, and Prednisone commonly increases appetite rather than decreases it.
4. A client's serum Calcium is 8.8 mg/dL. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering to this client?
- A. Calcitonin-salmon
- B. Calcium carbonate
- C. Zoledronic acid
- D. Ibandronate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The client's serum calcium level is below the expected reference range. In this case, the appropriate medication to anticipate administering is Calcium carbonate, an oral form of calcium used to increase serum calcium levels to the expected reference range.
5. Medications classified as angiotensin II receptor agents typically end in?
- A. Sartan
- B. Ase
- C. Olol
- D. Pril
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Angiotensin II receptor agents belong to the drug class called angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs). The generic names of ARBs usually end in -sartan, helping to identify this specific class of medications. Therefore, medications that end in -sartan are likely to be angiotensin II receptor agents. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because drugs ending in -ase (like streptokinase), -olol (like propranolol), and -pril (like lisinopril) typically belong to different drug classes with distinct mechanisms of action.
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