Nursing Elites

1. A client with angina is being taught how to use nitroglycerin transdermal ointment. Which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Remove the prior dose before applying a new dose.
• B. Rub the ointment directly into the skin until it is no longer visible.
• C. Cover the applied ointment with a clean gauze pad.
• D. Apply the ointment to the same skin area each time.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction is to remove the prior dose before applying a new one to prevent toxicity. Nitroglycerin ointment can cause adverse effects if accumulated doses are not removed. Rubbing the ointment until it's not visible or covering it with gauze may alter absorption. Applying it to the same area each time can lead to skin irritation or desensitization.

2. A client has a new prescription for Alendronate. Which of the following instructions should be included in the discharge teaching?

• A. Take this medication at bedtime.
• B. Remain upright for 30 minutes after taking the medication.
• C. Take this medication with food.
• D. Increase your intake of calcium-rich foods.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to remain upright for 30 minutes after taking Alendronate. This medication can cause esophageal irritation, and maintaining an upright position for at least 30 minutes helps prevent complications such as esophagitis or esophageal ulcers. Choice A is incorrect because Alendronate should be taken in the morning on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because Alendronate should be taken on an empty stomach, preferably 30 minutes before the first food, beverage, or medication of the day. Choice D is incorrect because while calcium intake is important, it is not a specific instruction related to taking Alendronate.

3. A client is receiving IV Dopamine for the treatment of shock. Which of the following findings indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Increased heart rate
• B. Decreased blood pressure
• C. Increased urine output
• D. Decreased respiratory rate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is increased urine output. Dopamine increases cardiac output and improves renal perfusion, leading to increased urine output. This response indicates that the medication is effective in treating shock by enhancing renal function and perfusion. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because an increased heart rate, decreased blood pressure, and decreased respiratory rate are not findings that indicate the effectiveness of IV Dopamine in treating shock.

4. At what amount does Acetaminophen stop effectively controlling pain?

• A. Over 1,000 mg
• B. 750 mg
• C. Over 1,500 mg
• D. 150 mg

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Acetaminophen is known to lose its effectiveness in controlling pain beyond a dosage of 1,000 mg. Taking more than 1,000 mg will not provide additional pain relief but can increase the risk of adverse effects. Choice B (750 mg) is incorrect because this amount is within the typical recommended dose range for Acetaminophen. Choice C (Over 1,500 mg) is incorrect as it suggests a higher dose than the point at which Acetaminophen starts to lose its effectiveness. Choice D (150 mg) is too low a dose to effectively control pain for most adults.

5. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following dietary instructions should the nurse provide?

• A. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• B. Limit your intake of calcium-rich foods.
• C. Avoid consuming dairy products.
• D. Increase your intake of fiber-rich foods.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can cause potassium loss. Clients should increase their intake of potassium-rich foods to prevent hypokalemia.

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