Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is providing teaching to a client who is starting therapy with paclitaxel. Which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare provider instruct the client to monitor?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Neutropenia
• D. Urinary retention

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Neutropenia. Paclitaxel commonly causes neutropenia due to bone marrow suppression. It is essential for clients receiving this medication to monitor for signs of neutropenia, such as fever, chills, and increased susceptibility to infections, as it can increase the risk of serious complications.

2. When caring for a client prescribed Lithium, which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to assess for potential toxicity?

• A. Serum sodium
• B. Serum lithium
• C. Serum potassium
• D. Serum calcium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client's serum lithium levels to ensure they are within the therapeutic range and to assess for potential toxicity. Monitoring serum lithium levels is crucial because lithium has a narrow therapeutic range, and levels outside this range can lead to toxicity, which can be life-threatening. Therefore, regular monitoring is essential to prevent adverse effects and ensure the medication's effectiveness.

3. A client who received Prochlorperazine 4 hours ago reports spasms of his face. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?

• A. Fomepizole
• B. Naloxone
• C. Phytonadione
• D. Diphenhydramine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client's symptoms of face spasms after receiving Prochlorperazine indicate acute dystonia, a known side effect. Diphenhydramine is commonly administered to manage extrapyramidal symptoms, such as muscle spasms, caused by medications like Prochlorperazine. Therefore, the nurse should anticipate a prescription for Diphenhydramine to alleviate the client's symptoms. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Fomepizole is used in methanol or ethylene glycol poisoning, Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used in opioid overdose, and Phytonadione is vitamin K, used to reverse the effects of certain blood thinners.

4. A client has a new prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hypernatremia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Furosemide is a diuretic that commonly causes hyponatremia (low sodium levels) due to its effect on sodium and water excretion. The nurse must closely monitor the client for signs of hyponatremia, such as weakness, confusion, and muscle cramps, and promptly intervene to prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Furosemide is not associated with hyperkalemia, hypernatremia, or hypercalcemia. Understanding the medication's mechanism of action helps prioritize monitoring for potential adverse effects.

5. A client has a prescription for a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch. Which of the following instructions should be included by the healthcare provider?

• A. Apply the patch to a hairless area of the body.
• B. Remove the patch every 12 hours.
• C. Massage the patch after applying it.
• D. Place the patch over a hairless area of the body.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch is to place it over a hairless area of the body. This is essential to ensure proper adhesion and consistent absorption of the medication. Hair can impede the patch's ability to stick to the skin and deliver the medication effectively. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Applying the patch to the same site every day (Choice A) may lead to skin irritation, removing the patch every 12 hours (Choice B) is not typically recommended for Nitroglycerin patches, and massaging the patch after applying it (Choice C) could alter its integrity and affect drug delivery.

Similar Questions