ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. A client is starting therapy with Metformin. Which of the following instructions should be included by the healthcare provider?
- A. Take this medication with your first bite of food.
- B. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
- C. Take this medication before bedtime.
- D. Take this medication every other day.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Take this medication with your first bite of food.' Metformin should be taken with meals to reduce gastrointestinal side effects and ensure better absorption. By taking the medication with the first bite of food, the client can help minimize potential stomach upset and improve the drug's effectiveness. Choice B is incorrect because taking Metformin on an empty stomach can increase the risk of gastrointestinal side effects. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific recommendation to take Metformin before bedtime. Choice D is incorrect because Metformin is typically taken daily, not every other day, as prescribed by the healthcare provider.
2. A client in the post-anesthesia recovery unit received a nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent and has muscle weakness. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?
- A. Neostigmine
- B. Naloxone
- C. Dantrolene
- D. Vecuronium
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Neostigmine is a cholinesterase inhibitor commonly used to reverse the effects of nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockers, such as the one the client received. It works by inhibiting the breakdown of acetylcholine, thereby enhancing neuromuscular transmission and reversing muscle weakness caused by the neuromuscular blocking agent.
3. A client has a new prescription for Nifedipine. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Edema
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Edema. Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, can lead to peripheral edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should closely observe the client's lower extremities for any signs of swelling, which could indicate the development of edema. Choice A, Hypertension, is incorrect because Nifedipine is used to treat hypertension, not cause it. Choice C, Hyperglycemia, is unrelated to Nifedipine's common adverse effects. Choice D, Bradycardia, is not typically associated with Nifedipine use.
4. In which patient could the drug Senna potentially be indicated?
- A. A patient with an eating disorder
- B. A patient who has not passed stool in 5 days
- C. A patient with anal fissures
- D. A patient with a history of hemorrhoids
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Senna is a stimulant laxative commonly used to treat constipation by stimulating bowel movements. It is typically indicated for patients who have not passed stool in several days, thereby helping to relieve constipation. Patients with eating disorders may require different treatments related to their condition. Patients with anal fissures or a history of hemorrhoids may need treatments targeted at those specific issues, which may not involve Senna.
5. A client is prescribed Amlodipine. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Peripheral edema
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Hypertension
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker known to cause peripheral edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should monitor the client for swelling, particularly in the lower extremities, as it can indicate the development of this side effect. Choice A, Tachycardia, is not a common adverse effect of Amlodipine. Choice C, Hyperglycemia, is not typically associated with Amlodipine use. Choice D, Hypertension, is the condition Amlodipine is prescribed to treat, not an adverse effect of the medication.
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