a nurse is administering iv acyclovir to a client who has varicella which of the following actions should the nurse take
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2024

1. When administering IV Acyclovir to a client with Varicella, what action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When administering IV Acyclovir to a client with Varicella, the nurse should infuse the medication over at least 1 hour to prevent nephrotoxicity. Rapid infusion can lead to adverse effects such as renal damage. Therefore, it is crucial to follow the recommended infusion rate to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Choice A is incorrect as stool softeners are not indicated in this situation. Choice B is incorrect because fluid intake should be maintained or increased to prevent dehydration and support kidney function. Choice D is incorrect as monitoring for hypotension is not specifically related to the administration of IV Acyclovir in Varicella.

2. A client has a prescription for Clonidine to treat hypertension. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Correct Answer: Taking Clonidine at the same time each day is crucial to ensure consistent blood levels and effectively manage blood pressure. Consistency in timing helps optimize the medication's effectiveness in controlling hypertension.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Butorphanol to a client who has a history of substance use disorder. The healthcare professional should identify which of the following information as true regarding Butorphanol?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Butorphanol is an opioid agonist/antagonist that can precipitate withdrawal symptoms in opioid-dependent individuals. Symptoms of abstinence syndrome can include abdominal pain, fever, and anxiety. This occurs because butorphanol competes with and displaces opioid agonists from receptors, leading to withdrawal symptoms in opioid-dependent clients. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Butorphanol does not have a lower risk of abuse than morphine, it can cause respiratory depression similar to other opioids, and although it is an opioid antagonist, it does not get reversed by opioid antagonists.

4. A client is being discharged with a new prescription for furosemide 40 mg PO daily. Which of the following instructions should be included?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Stand up slowly to minimize orthostatic hypotension.' Clients prescribed furosemide are at risk for orthostatic hypotension, a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions. Advising the client to stand up slowly can help prevent this complication. Instructing the client to avoid rapid position changes decreases the likelihood of dizziness or fainting episodes. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because furosemide does not require avoiding potassium-rich foods, taking the medication with food, or daily weighing as specific instructions.

5. A client is being discharged with a new prescription for Fluoxetine for PTS. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement for the nurse to include in the teaching is that the client may experience a decreased desire for intimacy while taking Fluoxetine for PTS. This is important because Fluoxetine, an SSRI used to treat PTS, can lead to decreased libido as a potential adverse effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the specific side effect associated with Fluoxetine and are not directly relevant to the medication's effects for this patient.

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