a nurse is caring for a client who is receiving moderate sedation with diazepam iv the client is oversedate which of the following medications should
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019

1. A client is receiving moderate sedation with Diazepam IV and is oversedated. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering to this client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Flumazenil is a specific benzodiazepine antagonist that competitively reverses the sedative effects of benzodiazepines like Diazepam. In cases of oversedation or respiratory depression caused by benzodiazepines, administering Flumazenil can help reverse the effects and restore the client's consciousness and respiratory drive. Ketamine (Choice A) is a dissociative anesthetic and not used to reverse benzodiazepine sedation. Naltrexone (Choice B) is an opioid receptor antagonist and not indicated for benzodiazepine oversedation. Fluvoxamine (Choice D) is an antidepressant and not used to counteract benzodiazepine sedation.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer verapamil by IV bolus to a client who is experiencing cardiac dysrhythmias. For which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare professional monitor when giving this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Verapamil is known to cause hypotension as one of its adverse effects due to its vasodilatory properties. Therefore, it is essential for the healthcare professional to monitor the client's blood pressure closely during and after administration to prevent complications such as severe hypotension. Hyperthermia, ototoxicity, and muscle pain are not commonly associated with verapamil administration, making choices A, C, and D incorrect.

3. A client has a new prescription for Spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor as an adverse effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which can lead to hyperkalemia as an adverse effect. Hyperkalemia can result in muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias, making it essential for the nurse to monitor potassium levels closely when a client is on Spironolactone. Choice B, Hypoglycemia, is incorrect because Spironolactone is not known to cause low blood sugar levels. Choice C, Hypocalcemia, and Choice D, Hyponatremia, are also incorrect as Spironolactone is not associated with decreased levels of calcium or sodium.

4. When administering Amitriptyline to a client experiencing cancer pain, for which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Orthostatic hypotension.' When administering Amitriptyline, the nurse should monitor for orthostatic hypotension. This condition can occur due to the drug's anticholinergic effects, leading to a sudden drop in blood pressure when standing up. Symptoms may include dizziness, lightheadedness, and an increased risk of falls. Monitoring for signs of orthostatic hypotension is crucial to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as decreased appetite, explosive diarrhea, and decreased pulse rate are not typically associated with the administration of Amitriptyline.

5. A client has a new prescription for Ondansetron. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Take the medication 30 minutes before chemotherapy.' Ondansetron, an antiemetic, should be taken before chemotherapy to prevent nausea and vomiting. Taking it 30 minutes before chemotherapy ensures the medication is most effective in controlling chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Option B is unrelated to Ondansetron, option C is not necessary for this medication, and option D does not interact with Ondansetron but is relevant for other medications.

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