ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. A client is receiving moderate sedation with Diazepam IV and is oversedated. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering to this client?
- A. Ketamine
- B. Naltrexone
- C. Flumazenil
- D. Fluvoxamine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Flumazenil is a specific benzodiazepine antagonist that competitively reverses the sedative effects of benzodiazepines like Diazepam. In cases of oversedation or respiratory depression caused by benzodiazepines, administering Flumazenil can help reverse the effects and restore the client's consciousness and respiratory drive. Ketamine (Choice A) is a dissociative anesthetic and not used to reverse benzodiazepine sedation. Naltrexone (Choice B) is an opioid receptor antagonist and not indicated for benzodiazepine oversedation. Fluvoxamine (Choice D) is an antidepressant and not used to counteract benzodiazepine sedation.
2. A healthcare provider is planning to administer Ciprofloxacin IV to a client who has cystitis. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take?
- A. Administer a concentrated solution.
- B. Infuse the medication over 60 min.
- C. Infuse the solution through the primary IV fluid tubing.
- D. Choose a small peripheral vein for administration.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Ciprofloxacin should be infused over 60 minutes to minimize vein irritation and reduce the risk of adverse effects. Administering a concentrated solution can lead to vein irritation and potential complications. Infusing the solution through the primary IV fluid tubing can cause incompatibility issues. Choosing a small peripheral vein may not be suitable for administering Ciprofloxacin, which should be infused through a larger vein to prevent vein irritation and ensure a proper dilution of the medication.
3. When a client is taking Somatropin to stimulate growth, what should the healthcare provider monitor the client's urine for?
- A. Bilirubin
- B. Protein
- C. Potassium
- D. Calcium
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client is taking Somatropin to stimulate growth, monitoring urine for calcium is essential. Somatropin can lead to increased calcium levels in the urine, potentially increasing the risk of renal calculi formation. Therefore, assessing for calcium in the urine helps in early detection and prevention of this complication. Monitoring for bilirubin, protein, or potassium in the urine is not directly related to the effects of Somatropin and would not provide relevant information in this context.
4. A client in an acute mental health facility is experiencing withdrawal from Opioid use and has a new prescription for Clonidine. Which of the following actions should the nurse identify as the priority?
- A. Administer the clonidine on the prescribed schedule.
- B. Provide ice chips at the client's bedside.
- C. Educate the client on the effects of clonidine.
- D. Obtain baseline vital signs.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to obtain baseline vital signs. This step is crucial in assessing the client's current physiological status and establishing a reference point for monitoring the effects of Clonidine. Administering the medication, providing ice chips, and educating the client are important tasks but assessing the client's vital signs takes precedence to ensure the client's safety and well-being during withdrawal management.
5. Which of the following is not a side effect of loop diuretics?
- A. Alkalosis
- B. Nausea
- C. Hypotension
- D. Potassium deficits
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Nausea is not commonly associated with loop diuretics. Loop diuretics are known to cause electrolyte imbalances such as potassium deficits, metabolic alkalosis, and hypotension due to excessive fluid loss. Nausea is not a typical side effect of loop diuretics.
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