Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Verapamil. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Increase your intake of high-fiber foods.
• B. Take the medication with grapefruit juice.
• C. Expect to feel drowsy or lightheaded.
• D. Avoid dairy products while taking this medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction to include when a client is prescribed Verapamil is to increase their intake of high-fiber foods. Verapamil can cause constipation as a side effect, and increasing fiber intake can help prevent constipation. High-fiber foods promote bowel regularity and can counteract the constipating effects of Verapamil. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because taking Verapamil with grapefruit juice can lead to adverse reactions, drowsiness or lightheadedness is not a typical side effect of Verapamil, and there is no need to avoid dairy products specifically while taking this medication.

2. A client is prescribed Lithium. Which of the following laboratory values should be monitored to assess for potential toxicity?

• A. Serum sodium
• B. Serum lithium
• C. Serum potassium
• D. Serum calcium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is prescribed Lithium, monitoring serum lithium levels is crucial to ensure they remain within the therapeutic range and to assess for potential toxicity. Monitoring serum lithium levels helps prevent adverse effects associated with lithium toxicity, such as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, tremors, and confusion.

3. What is the therapeutic classification of Furosemide?

• A. Antidiuretics
• B. Diuretics
• C. Anticonvulsants
• D. Antidotes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Furosemide is classified therapeutically as a diuretic. Diuretics are medications used to promote diuresis, which helps the body get rid of excess salt and water. Furosemide is commonly prescribed to treat conditions such as fluid retention and swelling (edema) associated with congestive heart failure, liver disease, or kidney disorders. Choice A, Antidiuretics, is incorrect as Furosemide acts as a diuretic, promoting the production of urine. Choice C, Anticonvulsants, is also incorrect as Furosemide is not used to treat seizures. Choice D, Antidotes, is incorrect as Furosemide is not an antidote but rather a medication used to treat conditions related to fluid retention.

4. A healthcare provider is reviewing a client's health record and notes that the client is experiencing episodes of hypokalemia. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider identify as a cause of the client's hypokalemia?

• A. Captopril
• B. Lisinopril
• C. Furosemide
• D. Spironolactone

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that acts on the kidneys to increase urine production. This increased urine output can lead to the excessive excretion of potassium, resulting in hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels and considering supplementation may be necessary when a patient is on furosemide to prevent or manage hypokalemia.

5. A client is receiving warfarin therapy. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of warfarin?

• A. Nausea
• B. Epistaxis
• C. Diarrhea
• D. Dyspepsia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Epistaxis, or nosebleeds, can be an indication of excessive anticoagulation while on warfarin therapy. Warfarin is a blood thinner that helps prevent blood clots. Epistaxis can occur as a result of the blood-thinning effects of warfarin, leading to increased bleeding tendencies, including nosebleeds. Nausea, diarrhea, and dyspepsia are not typically associated with warfarin therapy; therefore, they are not the adverse effects the nurse should identify in a client receiving warfarin.

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