Nursing Elites

1. What finding should a nurse monitor for as an adverse effect when a client has a new prescription for Spironolactone?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hypocalcemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to an increase in potassium levels. Hyperkalemia can be dangerous, causing muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias. Monitoring potassium levels closely is crucial when a client is on Spironolactone. Hypoglycemia (choice B) is incorrect because Spironolactone does not typically affect blood glucose levels. Hypocalcemia (choice C) and hyponatremia (choice D) are also incorrect as Spironolactone's primary impact is on potassium levels.

2. Why is it important to monitor ins and outs in patients using ACE inhibitors?

• A. To assess for renal impairment
• B. To ensure the patient is receiving adequate fluid intake
• C. To assess the patient for potential heart failure
• D. To assess for NSAID use

Correct answer: A

Rationale: It is crucial to monitor ins and outs in patients using ACE inhibitors to assess for renal impairment. ACE inhibitors can affect renal function, potentially leading to renal impairment. Monitoring the patient's fluid balance helps in early recognition of any renal issues and allows for timely interventions to prevent complications.

3. How should a client prevent systemic absorption of Timolol eye drops according to the nurse's instructions?

• A. Bony orbit
• B. Nasolacrimal duct
• C. Conjunctival sac
• D. Outer canthus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct technique to prevent systemic absorption of eye drops is to press on the nasolacrimal duct while instilling them. By doing so, the lacrimal punctum gets temporarily blocked, reducing drainage into the nasolacrimal duct and systemic circulation. This method helps enhance the localized effect of the medication and decreases the risk of systemic side effects. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not play a direct role in preventing systemic absorption of the eye drops.

4. When starting therapy with doxorubicin, which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to report?

• A. Hair loss
• B. Fatigue
• C. Sore throat
• D. Red urine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client to report a sore throat because it can indicate an infection due to the immunosuppressive effects of doxorubicin. Doxorubicin is known to suppress the immune system, making patients more susceptible to infections. Monitoring and reporting early signs of infection, such as a sore throat, are essential to prevent complications. Hair loss and fatigue are common side effects of doxorubicin but do not typically indicate immediate concerns for infection. Red urine is a known side effect of doxorubicin but is not a priority over potentially serious infections that can arise.

5. A healthcare professional is educating clients in an outpatient facility about the use of Insulin to treat type 1 Diabetes Mellitus. For which of the following types of insulin should the professional inform the clients to expect a peak effect 1 to 5 hr after administration?

• A. Insulin glargine
• B. NPH insulin
• C. Regular insulin
• D. Insulin lispro

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Regular insulin typically exhibits a peak effect approximately 1 to 5 hours after administration. It is important for clients to be aware of this timing to ensure optimal management of their blood glucose levels. Insulin glargine, NPH insulin, and Insulin lispro have different onset and peak times compared to Regular insulin. Insulin glargine has a slow, steady release with no pronounced peak, NPH insulin peaks around 4 to 12 hours after administration, and Insulin lispro has a rapid onset and a peak effect around 0.5 to 2.5 hours after administration. Therefore, Regular insulin is the correct choice for a peak effect within the specified time frame.

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