Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Beclomethasone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Rinse your mouth after each use of this medication.
• B. Limit fluid intake while taking this medication.
• C. Increase your intake of vitamin B12 while taking this medication.
• D. You can take the medication as needed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should provide is to rinse the mouth after each use of Beclomethasone. This practice helps reduce the risk of developing oral fungal infections associated with inhaled corticosteroids. Choice B is incorrect because there is no need to limit fluid intake while taking this medication. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific indication to increase vitamin B12 intake with Beclomethasone. Choice D is incorrect as Beclomethasone should be used according to the prescribed schedule, not as needed.

2. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health care record of a client who reports urinary incontinence and asks about a prescription for Oxybutynin. The provider should recognize that Oxybutynin is contraindicated in the presence of which of the following conditions?

• A. Bursitis
• B. Sinusitis
• C. Depression
• D. Glaucoma

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic medication that can increase intraocular pressure. It is contraindicated in clients with glaucoma, as it can worsen the condition. Glaucoma is a condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure, and using Oxybutynin can further elevate this pressure, potentially leading to serious complications such as vision impairment or damage to the optic nerve. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as bursitis, sinusitis, and depression are not contraindications for Oxybutynin use. Therefore, the correct answer is D, Glaucoma.

3. Which of the following is classified as a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?

• A. Quinidine
• B. Disopyramide
• C. Aminodarone
• D. Propafenone

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Quinidine is classified as a class IA sodium channel blocker. Class IA antiarrhythmics, like quinidine, work by blocking sodium channels and delaying repolarization. Propafenone, mentioned in the original rationale, is actually a class IC antiarrhythmic agent, not a class IA sodium channel blocker.

4. A client has a new prescription for Hydrochlorothiazide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication in the morning.
• B. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• C. Expect decreased urination within the first few days.
• D. Avoid foods high in potassium.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.' Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that can lead to hypokalemia by increasing potassium excretion. Therefore, instructing the client to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods is essential to prevent electrolyte imbalances and support overall health. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Instructing the client to take the medication in the morning is not directly related to the medication's mechanism of action. Expecting decreased urination within the first few days is not accurate as the medication is a diuretic that typically increases urination. Also, advising the client to avoid foods high in potassium would not be suitable, as increasing potassium-rich foods is necessary to counteract potential potassium depletion caused by Hydrochlorothiazide.

5. A client with Preeclampsia is receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. 2+ deep tendon reflexes
• B. 2+ pedal edema
• C. 24 mL/hr urinary output
• D. Respirations 12/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion for Preeclampsia, a urinary output less than 25 to 30 mL/hr is indicative of magnesium sulfate toxicity and should be promptly reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Option A, 2+ deep tendon reflexes, are expected findings in a client receiving magnesium sulfate and do not require immediate reporting. Option B, 2+ pedal edema, is a common symptom of preeclampsia and typically does not require immediate intervention. Option D, respirations 12/min, are within the normal range and do not indicate an immediate need for reporting to the provider.

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