Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an IV antibiotic to a client who has a systemic infection. Which of the following actions should the professional take first?

• A. Administer an antihistamine prior to the antibiotic.
• B. Monitor the client's urine output.
• C. Check the client's allergy history.
• D. Assess the client's vital signs.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The first action the healthcare professional should take is to check the client's allergy history before administering the antibiotic to prevent a potential allergic reaction. It is crucial to identify any known allergies to antibiotics to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Administering an antihistamine prior to the antibiotic (Choice A) is not recommended unless an allergic reaction occurs. Monitoring the client's urine output (Choice B) and assessing the client's vital signs (Choice D) are important but not the first step in this situation. Checking the client's allergy history takes precedence to prevent adverse reactions.

2. Which of the following conditions is not treated with Nifedipine?

• A. Angina
• B. Arrhythmias
• C. Hypertension
• D. Fluid retention

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker primarily used in the management of angina and hypertension. It is not typically used to treat arrhythmias or fluid retention. Angina is chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart, and hypertension is high blood pressure. Therefore, fluid retention is the condition that is not treated with Nifedipine.

3. A client is receiving treatment with irinotecan. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Hypertension
• C. Ototoxicity
• D. Neutropenia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Irinotecan is known to commonly cause diarrhea as an adverse effect due to its impact on the gastrointestinal tract. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for signs of diarrhea while receiving this treatment. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because irinotecan is not typically associated with hypertension, ototoxicity, or neutropenia as primary adverse effects. While these side effects can occur with other medications, they are not the main concerns when monitoring a client receiving irinotecan.

4. A client is receiving discharge instructions for long-term use of Prednisone. Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Stop taking the medication if you experience swelling.
• B. The provider will monitor your weight regularly.
• C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• D. You may notice decreased appetite while on this medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because long-term use of Prednisone can lead to weight gain, necessitating regular weight monitoring by the healthcare provider to manage any potential complications. Prednisone often causes fluid retention, leading to weight gain, hence the need for weight monitoring. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because swelling is not a typical reason to stop Prednisone, taking it on an empty stomach is not usually required, and Prednisone commonly increases appetite rather than decreases it.

5. What is the antidote for Heparin?

• A. Protamine sulfate
• B. Narcan
• C. Romazicon
• D. Naloxone

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Protamine sulfate. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication used to prevent blood clots. In cases of overdose or excessive bleeding due to Heparin, protamine sulfate is administered as the specific antidote. Protamine sulfate works by neutralizing Heparin's anticoagulant activity. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Narcan (Naloxone) is used to reverse opioid overdose, Romazicon (Flumazenil) is used to reverse benzodiazepine overdose, and Naloxone is also used to reverse opioid overdose but is not the antidote for Heparin.

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