Nursing Elites

1. A client is prescribed Clopidogrel. Which of the following laboratory values should be monitored to assess for potential adverse effects?

• A. White blood cell count
• B. Platelet count
• C. Hemoglobin
• D. Blood glucose

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication, so monitoring the client's platelet count is crucial to assess for potential bleeding complications. Changes in platelet count can indicate an increased risk of bleeding, a known adverse effect of Clopidogrel. Monitoring white blood cell count, hemoglobin, or blood glucose is not directly related to the potential adverse effects of Clopidogrel and would not provide relevant information regarding the medication's impact on platelet function.

2. A healthcare professional is planning to administer Morphine IV to a postoperative client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Monitor for seizures and confusion with repeated doses.
• B. Protect the client's skin from severe diarrhea that occurs with morphine.
• C. Withhold this medication if the respiratory rate is less than 12/min.
• D. Administer Morphine intermittently via IV bolus over 30 seconds or less.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the healthcare professional should take when administering Morphine IV to a postoperative client is to withhold the medication if the respiratory rate is less than 12/min. Respiratory depression is a common adverse effect of opioids like Morphine. Administering opioids when the respiratory rate is already compromised can further depress breathing, leading to life-threatening complications. Monitoring for seizures and confusion (Choice A) is not directly related to Morphine administration. Protecting the client's skin from severe diarrhea (Choice B) is not a common side effect of morphine. Administering Morphine via IV bolus (Choice D) should be done carefully but is not the most critical action in this scenario.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer IV Dantrolene to a client who has developed Malignant Hyperthermia during surgery. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Dilute the medication with sterile water and administer it rapidly.
• B. Store the medication in a refrigerator until use.
• C. Administer the medication through a large-bore IV catheter.
• D. Administer the medication via an infusion pump over 60 minutes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dantrolene should be administered through a large-bore IV catheter because it is highly irritating to tissues and can cause vein irritation or thrombophlebitis if administered through a small vein. Using a large-bore IV catheter helps to minimize the risk of tissue damage and ensures proper and safe administration of the medication in emergency situations like Malignant Hyperthermia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because diluting the medication with sterile water and administering it rapidly can lead to tissue damage, storing the medication in a refrigerator is not necessary, and administering the medication via an infusion pump over 60 minutes is not appropriate in emergency situations like Malignant Hyperthermia where rapid administration is crucial.

4. A client is being educated by a healthcare provider about Terbutaline. Which of the following statements by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?

• A. This medication will stop my contractions.
• B. This medication will prevent vaginal bleeding.
• C. This medication will promote blood flow to my baby.
• D. This medication will increase my prostaglandin production.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Terbutaline works by blocking beta2-adrenergic receptors, leading to uterine smooth muscle relaxation and stopping contractions. It is commonly used to delay preterm labor. Choice B is incorrect because Terbutaline is not used to prevent vaginal bleeding. Choice C is incorrect because Terbutaline's primary action is not related to promoting blood flow to the baby. Choice D is incorrect because Terbutaline does not increase prostaglandin production; instead, it works by blocking beta2-adrenergic receptors.

5. Which drug classes are NOT typically used to treat angina?

• A. Calcium channel blockers
• B. Organic nitrates
• C. Alpha blockers
• D. Beta blockers

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Angina is primarily treated with calcium channel blockers, organic nitrates, and beta blockers. Alpha blockers are not commonly used in the treatment of angina. Calcium channel blockers help dilate blood vessels, decreasing the workload on the heart. Organic nitrates relax and widen blood vessels, improving blood flow and reducing the heart's workload. Beta blockers reduce the heart rate and blood pressure, decreasing the heart's demand for oxygen. Alpha blockers are more commonly used to treat conditions like hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia.

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