ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. When starting Alfuzosin for the treatment of Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia, a nurse is providing teaching to a client. The nurse should instruct the client that which of the following is an adverse effect of this medication?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Edema
- C. Hypotension
- D. Tremor
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct adverse effect of Alfuzosin is hypotension. Alfuzosin relaxes muscle tone in veins, leading to decreased cardiac output and subsequent hypotension. Patients on this medication should be advised to change positions slowly to prevent a sudden drop in blood pressure. Choice A, Bradycardia, is not a common adverse effect of Alfuzosin. Choice B, Edema, is not typically associated with Alfuzosin use. Choice D, Tremor, is also not a common adverse effect of Alfuzosin.
2. A client with Schizophrenia is taking Risperidone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Increase your intake of snacks to prevent weight loss.
- B. Notify the provider if you develop breast enlargement.
- C. Be aware of the possibility of mild seizures while taking this medication.
- D. Expect an increase in libido when taking this medication.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should provide to the client taking Risperidone for Schizophrenia is to notify the provider if they develop breast enlargement. Risperidone can lead to an increase in prolactin levels, causing gynecomastia (breast enlargement) and galactorrhea. Therefore, it is crucial for the client to report these manifestations to the healthcare provider for appropriate management. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing snack intake to prevent weight loss is not a specific concern related to Risperidone. Mild seizures are not a common side effect of Risperidone, so this instruction is unnecessary. Risperidone is more likely to cause sexual side effects like decreased libido rather than an increase.
3. A healthcare professional is planning to administer subcutaneous enoxaparin 40 mg using a prefilled syringe of Enoxaparin 40 mg/0.4 mL to an adult client following hip arthroplasty. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional plan to take?
- A. Expel the air bubble from the prefilled syringe before injecting.
- B. Insert the needle completely into the client's tissue.
- C. Administer the injection in the client's thigh.
- D. Aspirate carefully after inserting the needle into the client's skin.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B. When administering enoxaparin, it is essential to insert the needle completely into the client's tissue to ensure a deep subcutaneous injection. This method helps in the appropriate delivery of the medication. Choice A is incorrect because expelling air bubbles is not necessary with subcutaneous injections and may lead to medication loss. Choice C is incorrect as enoxaparin is usually administered in the abdomen, not the thigh. Choice D is incorrect as aspiration is not recommended for subcutaneous injections to avoid trauma or bleeding.
4. A client with renal failure and an elevated phosphorus level is prescribed aluminum hydroxide 300 mg PO three times daily. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse inform the client?
- A. Constipation
- B. Metallic taste
- C. Headache
- D. Muscle spasms
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct. Aluminum hydroxide is known to cause constipation as a common side effect. Instructing the client about this potential adverse effect is important for their awareness and management. The other options, metallic taste, headache, and muscle spasms, are not typically associated with aluminum hydroxide use. Therefore, the nurse should focus on educating the client about the increased risk of constipation and provide guidance on managing this side effect to improve the client's comfort and treatment adherence.
5. When teaching a client with a new prescription for Timolol how to insert eye drops, which instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Press your finger on the inside corner of your eye for 1 minute after application.
- B. Apply the eye drops directly on the cornea.
- C. Drop the prescribed amount of medication into the center of the conjunctival sac.
- D. Wipe your eyes gently with a tissue immediately after application.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct way to administer eye drops is by instructing the client to drop the prescribed amount of medication into the center of the conjunctival sac. This technique helps in proper distribution and absorption of the medication. Choice A is incorrect as pressing the inside corner of the eye is not necessary. Choice B is incorrect because applying eye drops directly on the cornea can cause irritation and discomfort. Choice D is incorrect as wiping the eyes immediately after application can remove the medication and reduce its effectiveness.
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