ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medication list of a client who has a new prescription for Digoxin to treat heart failure. Which of the following medications places the client at risk for Digoxin toxicity?
- A. Spironolactone
- B. Calcium channel blockers
- C. Loop diuretics
- D. ACE inhibitors
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Loop diuretics, such as Furosemide, can increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity by causing hypokalemia. Hypokalemia enhances the toxic effects of Digoxin on the heart, leading to an increased risk of Digoxin toxicity. Spironolactone (Choice A) is less likely to cause hypokalemia and does not significantly increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity. Calcium channel blockers (Choice B) and ACE inhibitors (Choice D) do not directly increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity through hypokalemia; therefore, they are not the medications that place the client at risk for Digoxin toxicity.
2. A client has a new prescription for Buspirone to treat Anxiety. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication with food.
- B. Expect optimal therapeutic effects within 24 hours.
- C. Take this medication daily for anxiety.
- D. This medication has a low risk for dependency.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should educate the client that Buspirone has a low risk for physical or psychological dependence or tolerance. This information is crucial for the client to understand the medication's safety profile and potential risks associated with long-term use.
3. A client has a prescription for a Nicotine transdermal patch. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Apply the patch at the same time each day.
- B. Remove the patch at bedtime.
- C. Apply the patch to the same location daily.
- D. Place the patch over an area of the body with hair.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client using a Nicotine transdermal patch is to apply the patch at the same time each day. This helps maintain consistent blood levels of nicotine throughout the treatment period, which can aid in reducing cravings for smoking. Consistency in the application time is essential for the effectiveness of the patch. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Removing the patch at bedtime may disrupt the continuous delivery of nicotine, applying the patch to the same location daily can cause skin irritation, and placing the patch over an area with hair may affect its adhesion and absorption.
4. A client is prescribed Atorvastatin. Which of the following laboratory values should be monitored to assess for potential adverse effects?
- A. Blood glucose
- B. Creatine kinase
- C. Hemoglobin
- D. Sodium
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Creatine kinase should be monitored in clients taking Atorvastatin as it can indicate muscle damage, a serious adverse effect of statins. Elevated creatine kinase levels may suggest myopathy or rhabdomyolysis, which are potential complications of statin therapy.
5. A client has a new prescription for Amlodipine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include during discharge teaching?
- A. Take the medication at bedtime.
- B. Avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
- C. Increase your intake of high-sodium foods.
- D. Expect a dry cough.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include during discharge teaching is to advise the client to avoid drinking grapefruit juice. Grapefruit juice can inhibit the metabolism of amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, leading to increased drug levels in the blood. This can result in potentiated side effects and potential toxicity. Option A is incorrect as amlodipine is usually taken once daily, not specifically at bedtime. Option C is incorrect because high-sodium foods are generally discouraged in individuals with hypertension. Option D is incorrect as a dry cough is not an expected side effect of amlodipine.
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