ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client with breast cancer is receiving cyclophosphamide. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hyperglycemia
- C. Ototoxicity
- D. Hemorrhagic cystitis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for hemorrhagic cystitis when receiving cyclophosphamide due to its potential to cause bladder irritation and lead to this serious adverse effect. It is essential to assess for symptoms such as hematuria, dysuria, and flank pain. Monitoring for hypertension, hyperglycemia, and ototoxicity is not directly related to the side effects of cyclophosphamide.
2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Diltiazem IV to a client who has atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report immediately?
- A. Bradycardia.
- B. Hypertension.
- C. Shortness of breath.
- D. Tachycardia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is bradycardia. Diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker, can lead to bradycardia as a side effect. Bradycardia should be reported immediately because it can result in serious cardiac complications, especially in a client with atrial fibrillation. Hypertension, shortness of breath, and tachycardia are not typically associated with Diltiazem administration and would not be immediate concerns in this scenario.
3. A client has a new prescription for Beclomethasone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Take the medication with meals.
- B. Increase your intake of calcium-rich foods.
- C. Rinse your mouth after each use.
- D. Limit fluid intake while taking this medication.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Rinse your mouth after each use.' Beclomethasone can cause oral candidiasis (thrush) as an adverse effect. Rinsing the mouth after each use helps reduce the risk of developing thrush by removing any residue of the medication from the mouth, which can promote fungal growth. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Taking the medication with meals, increasing calcium-rich foods intake, or limiting fluid intake are not specific instructions related to minimizing the side effect of oral candidiasis associated with Beclomethasone.
4. A client in the operating room received a dose of Succinylcholine, leading to muscle rigidity and a sudden rise in body temperature. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?
- A. Neostigmine
- B. Naloxone
- C. Dantrolene
- D. Vecuronium
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Muscle rigidity and a sudden rise in temperature are indicative of malignant hyperthermia, a potential complication of succinylcholine. Dantrolene is the drug of choice to treat malignant hyperthermia as it acts on skeletal muscles to reduce metabolic activity and counteract the symptoms. Neostigmine (Choice A) is used to reverse the effects of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents, not for malignant hyperthermia. Naloxone (Choice B) is an opioid antagonist used for opioid overdose. Vecuronium (Choice D) is a non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent and is not the appropriate medication for malignant hyperthermia.
5. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for Atenolol. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Hypertension
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Atenolol is a beta-blocker that can cause bradycardia as an adverse effect. The client should monitor their pulse regularly and report any significant decreases.
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