a nurse is caring for a client who has breast cancer and is receiving cyclophosphamide which of the following findings should the nurse monitor
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023

1. A client with breast cancer is receiving cyclophosphamide. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for hemorrhagic cystitis when receiving cyclophosphamide due to its potential to cause bladder irritation and lead to this serious adverse effect. It is essential to assess for symptoms such as hematuria, dysuria, and flank pain. Monitoring for hypertension, hyperglycemia, and ototoxicity is not directly related to the side effects of cyclophosphamide.

2. When teaching a client with schizophrenia strategies to cope with anticholinergic effects of Fluphenazine, which of the following should the nurse suggest to minimize anticholinergic effects?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Chew sugarless gum to moisten the mouth.' Chewing sugarless gum can help alleviate dry mouth, which is a common anticholinergic effect of Fluphenazine. Dry mouth can be uncomfortable and affect the client's oral health. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address anticholinergic effects. Taking the medication in the morning to prevent insomnia (Option A) is unrelated to anticholinergic effects. Using cooling measures to decrease fever (Option C) is not a common anticholinergic effect of Fluphenazine. Taking an antacid to relieve nausea (Option D) does not specifically target anticholinergic effects.

3. Which medication is a beta blocker?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Atenolol (Tenormin) is a beta blocker commonly used to treat conditions like hypertension and angina by blocking the action of adrenaline on the heart. Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker, Captopril is an ACE inhibitor, and Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication. Therefore, the correct answer is Atenolol (Tenormin) as it belongs to the beta blocker class of medications.

4. A client is receiving moderate sedation with Diazepam IV and is oversedated. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering to this client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Flumazenil is a specific benzodiazepine antagonist that competitively reverses the sedative effects of benzodiazepines like Diazepam. In cases of oversedation or respiratory depression caused by benzodiazepines, administering Flumazenil can help reverse the effects and restore the client's consciousness and respiratory drive. Ketamine (Choice A) is a dissociative anesthetic and not used to reverse benzodiazepine sedation. Naltrexone (Choice B) is an opioid receptor antagonist and not indicated for benzodiazepine oversedation. Fluvoxamine (Choice D) is an antidepressant and not used to counteract benzodiazepine sedation.

5. A client has a new prescription for Hydrochlorothiazide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that can lead to dehydration due to increased urination. Signs of dehydration include dry mouth, increased thirst, and decreased urine output. It is essential to educate the client to monitor these signs and seek medical attention if they occur. Choice A is incorrect because Hydrochlorothiazide is usually taken in the morning to prevent disruption of sleep due to increased urination during the night. Choice B is incorrect because while Hydrochlorothiazide can lead to potassium loss, consuming foods rich in potassium is not a specific instruction related to this medication. Choice C is incorrect because taking Hydrochlorothiazide with a meal is not a specific requirement for its administration.

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