Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is planning to administer Morphine IV to a postoperative client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Monitor for seizures and confusion with repeated doses.
• B. Protect the client's skin from severe diarrhea that occurs with morphine.
• C. Withhold this medication if the respiratory rate is less than 12/min.
• D. Administer Morphine intermittently via IV bolus over 30 seconds or less.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the healthcare professional should take when administering Morphine IV to a postoperative client is to withhold the medication if the respiratory rate is less than 12/min. Respiratory depression is a common adverse effect of opioids like Morphine. Administering opioids when the respiratory rate is already compromised can further depress breathing, leading to life-threatening complications. Monitoring for seizures and confusion (Choice A) is not directly related to Morphine administration. Protecting the client's skin from severe diarrhea (Choice B) is not a common side effect of morphine. Administering Morphine via IV bolus (Choice D) should be done carefully but is not the most critical action in this scenario.

2. A client is prescribed Propylthiouracil (PTU) for the treatment of Graves' disease. Which adverse effect should the client be instructed to report?

• A. Sore throat.
• B. Drowsiness.
• C. Urinary retention.
• D. Heat intolerance.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sore throat. A sore throat and fever can indicate agranulocytosis, a serious adverse effect of PTU that can lead to a decreased white blood cell count. This condition requires immediate medical attention to prevent complications. Choice B, drowsiness, is not typically associated with PTU and is not a common adverse effect that needs to be reported. Choice C, urinary retention, is not a typical adverse effect of PTU; therefore, it is not the correct answer. Choice D, heat intolerance, is a symptom commonly seen in hyperthyroidism, which PTU is used to treat, so it is not an adverse effect that needs to be specifically reported.

3. A healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for Warfarin. Which of the following foods should the provider instruct the client to avoid?

• A. Broccoli
• B. Bananas
• C. Chicken
• D. Potatoes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients taking Warfarin should avoid foods high in vitamin K, such as broccoli, as they can interfere with the effectiveness of the medication. Vitamin K can counteract the anticoagulant effects of Warfarin, potentially leading to blood clotting issues. Broccoli is rich in vitamin K, so its consumption should be consistent to avoid fluctuations in the medication's effectiveness. Bananas, chicken, and potatoes are not known to significantly interact with Warfarin and do not pose a risk of affecting its anticoagulant properties.

4. While reviewing a client's medical history, a healthcare professional notes a prescription for Digoxin. Which of the following findings is a manifestation of Digoxin toxicity?

• A. Elevated blood pressure
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Yellow-tinged vision
• D. Ringing in the ears

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Yellow-tinged vision is a visual disturbance associated with Digoxin toxicity, often accompanied by other symptoms like nausea, vomiting, and confusion. Bradycardia is a common therapeutic effect of Digoxin, while elevated blood pressure and ringing in the ears are not typically associated with Digoxin toxicity. Therefore, the correct answer is yellow-tinged vision as a manifestation of Digoxin toxicity.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Spironolactone to a client. Which of the following laboratory results should the professional review before administering this medication?

• A. Serum potassium.
• B. Serum sodium.
• C. Serum chloride.
• D. Serum calcium.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When administering Spironolactone, it is essential to monitor the client's serum potassium levels because Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic. Monitoring potassium levels helps to detect hyperkalemia, a potential adverse effect of the medication.

Similar Questions