ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. A healthcare professional is planning to administer Morphine IV to a postoperative client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Monitor for seizures and confusion with repeated doses.
- B. Protect the client's skin from severe diarrhea that occurs with morphine.
- C. Withhold this medication if the respiratory rate is less than 12/min.
- D. Administer Morphine intermittently via IV bolus over 30 seconds or less.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action the healthcare professional should take when administering Morphine IV to a postoperative client is to withhold the medication if the respiratory rate is less than 12/min. Respiratory depression is a common adverse effect of opioids like Morphine. Administering opioids when the respiratory rate is already compromised can further depress breathing, leading to life-threatening complications. Monitoring for seizures and confusion (Choice A) is not directly related to Morphine administration. Protecting the client's skin from severe diarrhea (Choice B) is not a common side effect of morphine. Administering Morphine via IV bolus (Choice D) should be done carefully but is not the most critical action in this scenario.
2. A client has a new prescription for transdermal patches. Which statement should the client make to indicate understanding of the instructions?
- A. I will clean the site with an alcohol swab before applying the patch.
- B. I will rotate the application sites weekly.
- C. I will apply the patch to an area of skin with no hair.
- D. I will place the new patch on the site of the old patch.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Applying the patch to a hairless area of skin is essential for optimal medication absorption. Hair can interfere with the patch's adherence and effectiveness. It is important for the client to choose a site without hair to ensure proper delivery of the medication. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because cleaning the site with an alcohol swab (Choice A) is a good practice but not the most crucial aspect for transdermal patch application. Rotating application sites weekly (Choice B) is more relevant for injections to prevent skin irritation or breakdown. Placing the new patch on the site of the old patch (Choice D) can lead to skin irritation and poor absorption due to a build-up of medication.
3. A client has a new prescription for Captopril for hypertension. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hypernatremia
- C. Neutropenia
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Neutropenia is a serious adverse effect associated with ACE inhibitors like Captopril. It is characterized by a decreased level of neutrophils, which are important in fighting infections. Monitoring the client's complete blood count (CBC) is crucial to detect neutropenia early. The nurse should also educate the client on recognizing signs of infection and promptly reporting them to the healthcare provider for timely intervention. Hypokalemia is a potential adverse effect of diuretics, not ACE inhibitors. Hypernatremia is an electrolyte imbalance more commonly associated with conditions like dehydration. Bradycardia is not a typical adverse effect of Captopril.
4. A client has a new prescription for Levodopa/Carbidopa for Parkinson's disease. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Increase intake of protein-rich foods.
- B. Expect muscle twitching to occur.
- C. Take this medication with food.
- D. Anticipate relief of manifestations in 24 hours.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include is to take Levodopa/Carbidopa with food. Taking this medication with food helps reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Instructing the client to take the medication with food promotes better tolerance and absorption of the drug. Choice A is incorrect because increasing protein-rich foods is not specifically related to the administration of this medication. Choice B is incorrect as muscle twitching is not a common side effect of Levodopa/Carbidopa. Choice D is incorrect because relief of manifestations may take longer than 24 hours to occur.
5. A healthcare professional is caring for four clients who have Peptic Ulcer Disease. The healthcare professional should recognize Misoprostol is contraindicated for which of the following clients?
- A. A client who is pregnant
- B. A client who has osteoarthritis
- C. A client who has a kidney stone
- D. A client who has a urinary tract infection
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Misoprostol is contraindicated in pregnancy as it can induce labor and potentially lead to harm to the fetus. Therefore, it should not be used in pregnant clients due to its uterotonic effects. For clients with osteoarthritis, kidney stone, or urinary tract infection, Misoprostol is not contraindicated specifically for these conditions.
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