ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. A healthcare professional is planning to administer Morphine IV to a postoperative client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Monitor for seizures and confusion with repeated doses.
- B. Protect the client's skin from severe diarrhea that occurs with morphine.
- C. Withhold this medication if the respiratory rate is less than 12/min.
- D. Administer Morphine intermittently via IV bolus over 30 seconds or less.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action the healthcare professional should take when administering Morphine IV to a postoperative client is to withhold the medication if the respiratory rate is less than 12/min. Respiratory depression is a common adverse effect of opioids like Morphine. Administering opioids when the respiratory rate is already compromised can further depress breathing, leading to life-threatening complications. Monitoring for seizures and confusion (Choice A) is not directly related to Morphine administration. Protecting the client's skin from severe diarrhea (Choice B) is not a common side effect of morphine. Administering Morphine via IV bolus (Choice D) should be done carefully but is not the most critical action in this scenario.
2. Which of the following is the primary site of activity for the drug Warfarin?
- A. Kidney
- B. Liver
- C. Blood
- D. Heart
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Warfarin primarily affects the liver where it inhibits the synthesis of clotting factors.
3. A client is being taught by a nurse about long-term use of oral prednisone for chronic asthma. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Weight Gain
- B. Nervousness
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Constipation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Weight gain is a common adverse effect of long-term prednisone use. Prednisone, a corticosteroid medication, can cause fluid retention and increased appetite, leading to weight gain. Nervousness (choice B) is more commonly associated with stimulant medications or excessive caffeine intake. Bradycardia (choice C) refers to a slow heart rate and is not a typical adverse effect of prednisone. Constipation (choice D) is not a common side effect of prednisone; in fact, prednisone is more likely to cause gastrointestinal issues such as increased appetite and weight gain.
4. A client with type 2 Diabetes Mellitus is starting Repaglinide. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the administration of this medication?
- A. I'll take this medicine with my meals.
- B. I'll take this medicine 30 minutes before I eat.
- C. I'll take this medicine just before I go to bed.
- D. I'll take this medicine as soon as I wake up in the morning.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Repaglinide causes a rapid, short-lived release of insulin. It is crucial for the client to take this medication 15-30 minutes before each meal to synchronize the peak insulin availability with mealtime glucose elevation, maximizing its effectiveness in controlling blood sugar levels. Choice A is incorrect because taking the medicine with meals may not optimize its action. Choice C is incorrect as taking the medicine before going to bed is not in line with its mechanism of action. Choice D is incorrect as taking the medicine upon waking up does not coincide with mealtime glucose elevation.
5. A client is starting a course of Metronidazole to treat an infection. For which of the following adverse effects should the client stop taking Metronidazole and notify the provider?
- A. Metallic taste
- B. Nausea
- C. Ataxia
- D. Dark-colored urine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Ataxia.' Ataxia is a sign of central nervous system (CNS) toxicity, which can be a severe adverse effect of Metronidazole. Metallic taste and nausea are common side effects of Metronidazole but do not require stopping the medication unless they persist or worsen. Dark-colored urine is not typically associated with Metronidazole and does not indicate a severe adverse effect.
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