Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer IV Furosemide to a client with heart failure. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Administer the medication undiluted.
• B. Dilute the medication with normal saline.
• C. Administer the medication through a central line.
• D. Administer the medication slowly over 2 minutes.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Furosemide, when administered intravenously, should be given slowly over 2 minutes to reduce the risk of ototoxicity, a known adverse effect of rapid infusion. This method allows for better monitoring of the client's response and decreases the likelihood of adverse reactions associated with a faster administration rate.

2. Why does a nurse on an oncology unit verify a client's current cumulative lifetime dose of doxorubicin before administering it to a client with breast cancer?

• A. Excessive doxorubicin can result in myelosuppression.
• B. Exceeding the lifetime cumulative dose limit of doxorubicin may lead to extravasation.
• C. An excess amount of doxorubicin can lead to cardiomyopathy.
• D. Exceeding the lifetime cumulative dose limit of doxorubicin may cause red-tinged urine and sweat.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Verifying the client's current cumulative lifetime dose of doxorubicin is necessary because excessive amounts of the medication can lead to cardiomyopathy, a serious and potentially life-threatening side effect. By monitoring the cumulative dose, healthcare providers can help prevent cardiotoxicity and ensure patient safety during treatment.

3. Which of the following is not a common effect of Midazolam?

• A. Amnesia
• B. Decreased respiratory function
• C. Anesthetic
• D. Dizziness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Midazolam is a benzodiazepine commonly used for its sedative, anxiolytic, and amnestic effects. While dizziness can be a side effect of Midazolam, it is not a primary or common effect. Therefore, the correct answer is D, as it deviates from the typical effects associated with Midazolam.

4. A client is starting therapy with paclitaxel. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Neutropenia
• D. Urinary retention

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Neutropenia is a common adverse effect of paclitaxel due to bone marrow suppression. Clients should be instructed to monitor for signs of infection and report any symptoms such as fever, chills, or sore throat immediately to their healthcare provider.

5. A client has a new prescription for hydrochlorothiazide to treat hypertension. Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Take the medication in the morning.
• B. Increase intake of potassium-rich foods.
• C. Avoid sun exposure while taking this medication.
• D. Limit fluid intake to 1 liter per day.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction that should be included for a client prescribed hydrochlorothiazide is to increase the intake of potassium-rich foods. Hydrochlorothiazide, being a diuretic, can lead to hypokalemia by enhancing potassium excretion. Increasing consumption of potassium-rich foods like bananas or oranges can help prevent hypokalemia and maintain electrolyte balance. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking the medication in the morning is not a specific instruction related to hydrochlorothiazide. Avoiding sun exposure is more relevant for photosensitive medications, not hydrochlorothiazide. Limiting fluid intake to 1 liter per day is not necessary unless specifically advised by a healthcare provider.

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