ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Test Bank
1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer IV Furosemide to a client with heart failure. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Administer the medication undiluted.
- B. Dilute the medication with normal saline.
- C. Administer the medication through a central line.
- D. Administer the medication slowly over 2 minutes.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Furosemide, when administered intravenously, should be given slowly over 2 minutes to reduce the risk of ototoxicity, a known adverse effect of rapid infusion. This method allows for better monitoring of the client's response and decreases the likelihood of adverse reactions associated with a faster administration rate.
2. What is a severe adverse effect of iron supplementation?
- A. Seizures
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Edema
- D. Serotonin syndrome
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A severe adverse effect of iron supplementation is seizures. Iron toxicity can lead to symptoms such as abdominal pain, vomiting, bloody diarrhea, lethargy, and in severe cases, seizures. It is important for individuals taking iron supplements to follow recommended dosages to prevent adverse effects.
3. What is the primary action of warfarin as an anticoagulant?
- A. Prevents the formation of blood clots
- B. Dissolves existing blood clots
- C. Dilates coronary arteries
- D. Treats rhythm disturbances
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Prevents the formation of blood clots." Warfarin acts as an anticoagulant by inhibiting the synthesis of certain clotting factors in the liver. This action reduces the blood's ability to clot, making it effective in preventing the formation of blood clots. Choice B is incorrect because warfarin does not dissolve existing blood clots; it prevents their formation. Choice C is incorrect because warfarin's primary action is not to dilate coronary arteries. Choice D is incorrect as warfarin is not used to treat rhythm disturbances, but rather to prevent clot formation.
4. An adolescent client has a new prescription for Clomipramine for OCD. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include to minimize an adverse effect of this medication?
- A. Wear sunglasses when outdoors.
- B. Check your temperature daily.
- C. Take this medication in the morning.
- D. Add extra calories to your diet.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To minimize the adverse effect of photophobia associated with Clomipramine, the client should be advised to wear sunglasses when outdoors. Clomipramine is a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) known to cause anticholinergic effects like photophobia, which can be reduced by protecting the eyes with sunglasses when exposed to bright light. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because checking temperature daily, taking the medication in the morning, and adding extra calories to the diet are not specifically related to minimizing the adverse effect of photophobia caused by Clomipramine.
5. Which of the following drugs is associated with extreme photosensitivity as a reaction?
- A. Digitalis
- B. Niacin
- C. Tetracycline
- D. Fluoroquinolones
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Tetracycline is known to cause extreme photosensitivity reactions, making individuals more sensitive to sunlight and increasing the risk of severe sunburn. It is essential for patients taking tetracycline to protect themselves from excessive sun exposure to prevent adverse reactions.
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