Nursing Elites

1. A client receives a local anesthetic of Lidocaine during the repair of a skin laceration. For which of the following adverse reactions should the nurse monitor the client?

• A. Seizures
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Fever

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Seizures are a potential adverse reaction to local anesthetics like Lidocaine. Lidocaine can affect the central nervous system and, in some cases, lead to seizure activity. Therefore, it is important for the nurse to monitor the client for any signs of seizures during and after the administration of Lidocaine.

2. A client in the post-anesthesia recovery unit received a nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent and has muscle weakness. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?

• A. Neostigmine
• B. Naloxone
• C. Dantrolene
• D. Vecuronium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Neostigmine is a cholinesterase inhibitor commonly used to reverse the effects of nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockers, such as the one the client received. It works by inhibiting the breakdown of acetylcholine, thereby enhancing neuromuscular transmission and reversing muscle weakness caused by the neuromuscular blocking agent.

3. What is the therapeutic use of Phenytoin?

• A. Replacement in hypothyroidism to restore normal hormonal balance
• B. Diminished accumulation of acid in the gastric lumen with lessened gastroesophageal reflux
• C. Diminished seizure activity, termination of ventricular arrhythmias
• D. Prevention of thrombus formation, prevention of extension of existing thrombi

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Phenytoin is primarily used to diminish seizure activity and is effective in terminating ventricular arrhythmias. It works by stabilizing neuronal membranes, reducing repetitive neuronal firing, and limiting the spread of seizure activity in the brain. While phenytoin does not have a direct role in preventing thrombus formation or extending existing thrombi, it is crucial in managing seizures and certain arrhythmias.

4. A client is being discharged with a new prescription for furosemide 40 mg PO daily. Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Avoid foods rich in potassium.
• B. Take the medication with food.
• C. Weigh yourself daily.
• D. Stand up slowly to minimize orthostatic hypotension.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Stand up slowly to minimize orthostatic hypotension.' Clients prescribed furosemide are at risk for orthostatic hypotension, a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions. Advising the client to stand up slowly can help prevent this complication. Instructing the client to avoid rapid position changes decreases the likelihood of dizziness or fainting episodes. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because furosemide does not require avoiding potassium-rich foods, taking the medication with food, or daily weighing as specific instructions.

5. A healthcare provider is completing a client's medical history. The client takes Simvastatin. The healthcare provider should identify which of the following disorders as a contraindication to adding Ezetimibe to the client's medications?

• A. History of severe constipation
• B. History of hypertension
• C. Active hepatitis C
• D. Type 2 diabetes mellitus

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ezetimibe is contraindicated in patients with active moderate-to-severe liver disorders, such as active hepatitis C, especially when they are already taking a statin like simvastatin. This combination can increase the risk of liver problems and is not recommended due to the potential for further liver damage. Choices A, B, and D are not directly contraindications for adding Ezetimibe to the client's medications.

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