ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. A client with a new diagnosis of Crohn's disease is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which statement by the client demonstrates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should eat more fiber to help with my bowel movements.
- B. I will need to have routine colonoscopies to monitor my condition.
- C. I will limit my intake of whole grains.
- D. I should consume a low-fat diet.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with Crohn's disease require routine colonoscopies to monitor disease progression and complications. This helps healthcare providers assess the status of the disease and make informed treatment decisions. Choice A is incorrect because while fiber may be beneficial for some digestive conditions, it can exacerbate symptoms in Crohn's disease. Choice C is incorrect as whole grains can be a good source of nutrients unless they individually trigger symptoms in the client. Choice D is also incorrect since a low-fat diet is not a specific requirement for managing Crohn's disease.
2. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is at 30 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Blood pressure 140/90 mm Hg
- B. 1+ pitting edema in the lower extremities
- C. Weight gain of 2.3 kg (5 lb) in 1 week
- D. Mild headache
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A weight gain of 2.3 kg (5 lb) in 1 week can indicate worsening preeclampsia due to fluid retention, which can lead to serious complications. This finding should be reported promptly to the provider for further assessment and intervention. Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg is high but may not be an immediate concern for a client with preeclampsia at 30 weeks. 1+ pitting edema in the lower extremities is common in pregnancy, especially in the third trimester, and may not be a significant finding in isolation. A mild headache can be a common symptom in pregnancy and may not be indicative of worsening preeclampsia unless accompanied by other concerning signs.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 days postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Serosanguineous wound drainage
- B. Heart rate of 90/min
- C. Urine output of 30 mL/hr
- D. Temperature of 37.3°C (99.1°F)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A urine output of 30 mL/hr is significantly low and indicates possible renal impairment or inadequate perfusion to the kidneys, which are critical for postoperative recovery. In this situation, decreased urine output could lead to fluid and electrolyte imbalances, affecting the client's overall condition. The nurse should report this finding promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and intervention. Serosanguineous wound drainage is a normal finding in the early postoperative period and does not typically warrant immediate concern. A heart rate of 90/min is within the normal range and may be expected in a postoperative client due to the stress response. A temperature of 37.3°C (99.1°F) is slightly elevated but not a concerning finding in isolation postoperatively.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Gastric residual of 200 mL or more
- B. pH of gastric contents is 5.0
- C. Bowel sounds are present in all quadrants
- D. Temperature 37.5°C (99.5°F)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A gastric residual of 200 mL or more indicates delayed gastric emptying, which can be a sign of potential complications such as aspiration or intolerance to the enteral feedings. This finding should be reported to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and possible intervention. Choices B, C, and D are within normal limits and do not require immediate reporting. A pH of 5.0 is normal for gastric contents, bowel sounds in all quadrants indicate normal gastrointestinal motility, and a temperature of 37.5°C (99.5°F) is within the normal range.
5. Which medication is used to treat opioid overdose?
- A. Naloxone
- B. Epinephrine
- C. Lidocaine
- D. Atropine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Naloxone is the correct answer. Naloxone is the standard medication for reversing opioid overdose by blocking opioid receptors. Choice B, Epinephrine, is used to treat severe allergic reactions (anaphylaxis) and cardiac arrest, not opioid overdose. Choice C, Lidocaine, is a local anesthetic used for numbing purposes and managing certain types of arrhythmias, not for opioid overdose. Choice D, Atropine, is used to treat bradycardia, organophosphate poisoning, and nerve agent toxicity, not opioid overdose.
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