a nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of crohns disease which of the following statements by the client indicates an under
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023

1. A client with a new diagnosis of Crohn's disease is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which statement by the client demonstrates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with Crohn's disease require routine colonoscopies to monitor disease progression and complications. This helps healthcare providers assess the status of the disease and make informed treatment decisions. Choice A is incorrect because while fiber may be beneficial for some digestive conditions, it can exacerbate symptoms in Crohn's disease. Choice C is incorrect as whole grains can be a good source of nutrients unless they individually trigger symptoms in the client. Choice D is also incorrect since a low-fat diet is not a specific requirement for managing Crohn's disease.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has Cushing's syndrome. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In clients with Cushing's syndrome, the nurse should expect hyperkalemia. Cushing's syndrome is characterized by excess cortisol levels, which can lead to potassium retention and result in hyperkalemia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypotension is not typically associated with Cushing's syndrome; instead, hypertension is more common due to the effects of cortisol. Weight gain, rather than weight loss, is a common symptom of Cushing's syndrome. Hypercalcemia is not a typical finding in Cushing's syndrome; instead, hypocalcemia may occur due to increased urinary calcium excretion.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 32 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. 1+ protein in the urine is indicative of worsening preeclampsia and should be reported to the provider immediately. Elevated blood pressure (choice A) is expected in preeclampsia, but a reading of 120/80 mm Hg is within the normal range. A respiratory rate of 16/min (choice B) and a heart rate of 88/min (choice D) are also within normal limits and not indicative of worsening preeclampsia.

4. Which lab value is essential for a patient receiving warfarin therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the INR (International Normalized Ratio) for a patient receiving warfarin therapy. INR monitoring is crucial to assess the effectiveness of warfarin in preventing blood clots while minimizing the risk of bleeding. Monitoring sodium levels (choice B), potassium levels (choice C), or platelet count (choice D) is not specifically essential for patients on warfarin therapy and does not provide direct information on the drug's anticoagulant effects.

5. A client with a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because checking blood sugar levels every morning before breakfast is a crucial aspect of managing diabetes effectively. This practice helps individuals monitor their blood sugar levels regularly and adjust their treatment plan as needed. Option A is incorrect as consuming a bedtime snack based on blood sugar levels alone may not be an appropriate approach to managing diabetes. Option B is incorrect as relying on more sugar-free candy does not address the overall dietary management of blood sugar levels. Option D is incorrect as avoiding physical activity when blood sugar is below 100 mg/dL can hinder diabetes management, as exercise is generally beneficial for controlling blood sugar levels.

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