ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. A client with a new diagnosis of Crohn's disease is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which statement by the client demonstrates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should eat more fiber to help with my bowel movements.
- B. I will need to have routine colonoscopies to monitor my condition.
- C. I will limit my intake of whole grains.
- D. I should consume a low-fat diet.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with Crohn's disease require routine colonoscopies to monitor disease progression and complications. This helps healthcare providers assess the status of the disease and make informed treatment decisions. Choice A is incorrect because while fiber may be beneficial for some digestive conditions, it can exacerbate symptoms in Crohn's disease. Choice C is incorrect as whole grains can be a good source of nutrients unless they individually trigger symptoms in the client. Choice D is also incorrect since a low-fat diet is not a specific requirement for managing Crohn's disease.
2. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has chronic pancreatitis. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
- A. Baked chicken
- B. Grilled salmon
- C. Steamed broccoli
- D. Fried foods
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Clients with chronic pancreatitis should avoid fried foods because they are high in fat, which can exacerbate symptoms and lead to further complications. Baked chicken (choice A), grilled salmon (choice B), and steamed broccoli (choice C) are generally healthier options and can be included in a low-fat diet suitable for individuals with chronic pancreatitis.
3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a new prescription for digoxin. Which of the following findings is the priority for the healthcare professional to report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate of 58/min
- B. Weight gain of 1 kg (2.2 lb) in 24 hours
- C. Respiratory rate of 20/min
- D. Temperature of 37.3°C (99.1°F)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A heart rate of 58/min is indicative of bradycardia, a potential sign of digoxin toxicity, which should be reported immediately. While weight gain, respiratory rate, and temperature are important parameters to monitor, they are not as critical as identifying bradycardia in a client taking digoxin.
4. A healthcare professional is reviewing admission prescriptions for a group of clients. Which of the following prescriptions should the healthcare professional identify as complete?
- A. Furosemide 20 mg BID.
- B. Aspirin 1 tablet daily.
- C. Nitroglycerin transdermal patch.
- D. Metoprolol 5 mg IV now.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it provides the medication (Metoprolol), dosage (5 mg), route of administration (IV), and timing (now), making it a complete prescription. Choices A, B, and C lack either the route of administration or timing, making them incomplete prescriptions. For choice A, it lacks the route of administration, and for choices B and C, they lack the timing of administration.
5. What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient experiencing an acute asthma attack?
- A. Administer bronchodilators
- B. Monitor oxygen saturation
- C. Provide supplemental oxygen
- D. Start IV fluids
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer bronchodilators. In an acute asthma attack, the priority is to open the airways and improve airflow. Bronchodilators like albuterol are crucial in providing immediate relief to the patient. Monitoring oxygen saturation (choice B) is important but administering bronchodilators takes precedence in managing the acute attack. Providing supplemental oxygen (choice C) may be necessary but addressing the airway obstruction with bronchodilators is the priority. Starting IV fluids (choice D) is not the priority in an acute asthma attack unless specifically indicated for other reasons such as dehydration.
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