a nurse is preparing to perform a bladder scan for a client who has overflow incontinence which of the following actions should the nurse take
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. A nurse is preparing to perform a bladder scan for a client who has overflow incontinence. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to prepare the client for urinary catheterization. Overflow incontinence may indicate bladder distention, where a bladder scan helps assess the need for catheterization. Placing the client in a supine position (Choice A) is not directly related to the procedure. Obtaining a prescription for an indwelling catheter (Choice B) is not necessary before performing a bladder scan. Cleansing the client's abdomen with an antiseptic solution (Choice C) is not specific to preparing for a bladder scan in this situation.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tachypnea. When caring for a client with pneumonia, the nurse should expect tachypnea, which is rapid breathing. This occurs due to decreased oxygenation and lung function. Bradycardia (A) is not typically associated with pneumonia; instead, tachycardia may be present. Hypertension (B) is not a common manifestation of pneumonia; instead, hypotension may occur due to sepsis. Hypothermia (D) is not a typical finding in pneumonia; fever or an elevated temperature is more common.

3. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning in a patient on furosemide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion by increasing its excretion in the urine. Hypokalemia is a common and concerning side effect of furosemide therapy. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is less likely as furosemide tends to lower potassium levels. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is more commonly seen with thiazide diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not directly associated with furosemide use.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer enoxaparin to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to inject the medication into the lateral abdominal wall when administering enoxaparin. This is the recommended technique to ensure proper absorption and prevent tissue damage. Choice A is incorrect because enoxaparin should be administered subcutaneously, not intramuscularly. Choice C is incorrect as massaging the injection site after administration is not recommended, as it can cause bruising and discomfort. Choice D is incorrect because the prefilled syringe should not be discarded after expelling the air bubble; it should be used for the injection.

5. What is the priority nursing assessment for a patient with chronic kidney disease?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor serum creatinine. In patients with chronic kidney disease, monitoring serum creatinine is crucial as it reflects kidney function. This assessment helps healthcare providers in evaluating the progression of the disease and adjusting treatment plans accordingly. Monitoring blood pressure (choice B) is essential in managing chronic kidney disease, but monitoring serum creatinine takes precedence. Monitoring urine output (choice C) and potassium levels (choice D) are also important aspects of managing chronic kidney disease, but they are not the priority assessment compared to monitoring serum creatinine.

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