Nursing Elites

1. A client is 2 hr postoperative following a total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Position the client supine with a pillow between the legs.
• B. Place an abduction pillow between the client's legs.
• C. Place a pillow under the client's knees.
• D. Position the client's legs in adduction.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After a total hip arthroplasty, it is crucial to prevent hip dislocation. Placing an abduction pillow between the client's legs helps maintain proper alignment of the hip joint and prevents adduction, which could lead to dislocation. Therefore, choice B is the correct action. Choice A is incorrect because positioning the client supine with a pillow between the legs does not provide the necessary abduction to prevent dislocation. Choice C, placing a pillow under the client's knees, does not address the need for abduction. Choice D, positioning the client's legs in adduction, is incorrect as adduction increases the risk of hip dislocation following hip arthroplasty.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has dehydration. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Hypotension
• C. Dry mucous membranes
• D. Tachypnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct! Dry mucous membranes are a common finding in clients with dehydration. Dehydration leads to reduced fluid volume in the body, resulting in dryness of mucous membranes, decreased skin turgor, and thirst. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) is not typically associated with dehydration, as the body tries to compensate for decreased fluid volume by increasing heart rate. Hypotension (low blood pressure) is a possible finding in dehydration due to reduced circulating volume. Tachypnea (rapid breathing) is more commonly seen in conditions like respiratory distress or metabolic acidosis, rather than dehydration.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a chest tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Clamp the chest tube for 15 minutes every 2 hours.
• B. Empty the drainage collection chamber when it is half full.
• C. Keep the drainage system below the level of the client's chest.
• D. Strip the chest tube every 2 hours to maintain patency.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when caring for a client with a chest tube is to keep the drainage system below the level of the client's chest. This positioning helps prevent fluid from flowing back into the pleural space, ensuring proper drainage and effective functioning of the chest tube. Clamping the chest tube intermittently or stripping it frequently can lead to complications and should be avoided. Emptying the drainage collection chamber at specific intervals may vary based on institutional protocols, but it should be done when it is no more than two-thirds full to prevent backflow and maintain accurate monitoring of drainage output.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse use to monitor the client's therapeutic response to the medication?

• A. INR
• B. aPTT
• C. Platelet count
• D. Hemoglobin A1C

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: INR. The INR (International Normalized Ratio) is the laboratory test used to monitor the therapeutic response of warfarin. It helps ensure that the client's clotting time is within the desired range to prevent complications such as excessive bleeding or clotting. Choice B, aPTT (Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time), is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy but rather for assessing heparin therapy. Choice C, Platelet count, assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not specifically used to monitor warfarin therapy. Choice D, Hemoglobin A1C, is a test used to monitor long-term blood sugar control in diabetic patients and is not relevant to monitoring warfarin therapy.

5. A client with a new diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will avoid taking ibuprofen for my pain.
• B. I will avoid eating spicy foods.
• C. I will limit my intake of dairy products.
• D. I will take my antacids 30 minutes before meals.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with peptic ulcer disease should avoid spicy foods as they can exacerbate symptoms and delay healing. Ibuprofen can worsen peptic ulcers by irritating the stomach lining, so it should be avoided. While limiting dairy products may be beneficial for some individuals with lactose intolerance, it is not a specific recommendation for peptic ulcer disease. Taking antacids before meals can help neutralize stomach acid; however, the timing may vary depending on the type of antacid, so there is no universal rule of taking antacids 30 minutes before meals. Choice A is incorrect because the client should avoid taking ibuprofen due to its potential to worsen peptic ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as there is no direct correlation between dairy product intake and peptic ulcer disease. Choice D is incorrect because the timing of antacid administration can vary and should be guided by specific recommendations.

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