ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. A client is 2 hr postoperative following a total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Position the client supine with a pillow between the legs.
- B. Place an abduction pillow between the client's legs.
- C. Place a pillow under the client's knees.
- D. Position the client's legs in adduction.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: After a total hip arthroplasty, it is crucial to prevent hip dislocation. Placing an abduction pillow between the client's legs helps maintain proper alignment of the hip joint and prevents adduction, which could lead to dislocation. Therefore, choice B is the correct action. Choice A is incorrect because positioning the client supine with a pillow between the legs does not provide the necessary abduction to prevent dislocation. Choice C, placing a pillow under the client's knees, does not address the need for abduction. Choice D, positioning the client's legs in adduction, is incorrect as adduction increases the risk of hip dislocation following hip arthroplasty.
2. A healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for metformin. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare provider include?
- A. Take this medication with meals.
- B. Avoid consuming alcohol while taking this medication.
- C. Take this medication at bedtime.
- D. Report any muscle pain to your healthcare provider.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Avoid consuming alcohol while taking this medication.' Clients taking metformin should avoid alcohol as it increases the risk of lactic acidosis. Choice A is incorrect because metformin is usually taken with meals to reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Choice C is incorrect as metformin is typically taken with meals, not at bedtime. Choice D is incorrect because muscle pain is not a common side effect of metformin.
3. A client is receiving a new prescription for enoxaparin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Rub the injection site after administration.
- B. Pinch the skin while administering the injection.
- C. Aspirate before administering the medication.
- D. Avoid taking aspirin while using this medication.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Avoid taking aspirin while using this medication.' Enoxaparin is an anticoagulant medication, and taking aspirin concurrently can increase the risk of bleeding. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. A nurse should not instruct the client to rub the injection site after administration as it may cause irritation. Pinching the skin while administering the injection is not recommended for enoxaparin injections. Aspirating before administering the medication is also unnecessary as enoxaparin is administered subcutaneously, not intramuscularly.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Increased oxygen saturation with exercise.
- B. Pursed-lip breathing with exertion.
- C. Productive cough with clear sputum.
- D. Clubbing of the fingers.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Productive cough with clear sputum.' Clients with COPD often have a chronic productive cough with thick, often purulent sputum. This sputum can be white, yellow, green, or clear. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Oxygen saturation may decrease with exertion in COPD due to impaired gas exchange. Pursed-lip breathing is used to control dyspnea, not directly related to increased saturation with exercise. Clubbing of the fingers is typically seen in conditions such as cyanotic heart disease or lung cancer.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous cardiac monitoring. The client's heart rate is 69/min, and the PR interval is 0.24 seconds. What cardiac rhythm should the nurse interpret this finding as?
- A. First-degree AV block.
- B. Premature ventricular contraction.
- C. Sinus bradycardia.
- D. Atrial fibrillation.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: First-degree AV block. A PR interval of 0.24 seconds indicates a prolonged PR interval, which is characteristic of first-degree AV block. This rhythm is considered benign and often does not require treatment. Choice B, premature ventricular contraction, is characterized by early, abnormal ventricular contractions and would not be indicated by the findings provided. Choice C, sinus bradycardia, would present with a normal PR interval but a heart rate less than 60 beats per minute. Choice D, atrial fibrillation, is characterized by an irregularly irregular rhythm with no identifiable P waves, which does not align with the findings of a prolonged PR interval in this scenario.
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