ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 180 Questions Quizlet
1. When caring for a client with asthma experiencing an acute exacerbation, which medication should the nurse administer first?
- A. Montelukast
- B. Salmeterol
- C. Albuterol
- D. Fluticasone
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During an acute asthma exacerbation, the priority is to quickly relieve bronchoconstriction and improve airflow. Albuterol is a short-acting bronchodilator that acts rapidly to dilate the airways, making it the first-line medication for acute symptom relief. Montelukast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist used for long-term asthma control, not for immediate relief. Salmeterol is a long-acting bronchodilator used for maintenance therapy, not for acute exacerbations. Fluticasone is an inhaled corticosteroid that reduces airway inflammation and is also used for long-term control, not for immediate relief during an exacerbation.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a pulmonary embolism. The nurse should identify the effectiveness of the treatment by observing which of the following?
- A. A chest x-ray reveals increased density in all fields
- B. The client reports feeling less anxious
- C. Diminished breath sounds are auscultated bilaterally
- D. ABG results include pH 7.48, PaO2 77 mm Hg, and PaCO2 47 mm Hg
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because when a client reports feeling less anxious, it suggests that the treatment for a pulmonary embolism is effective. This is a good indicator of the client's overall well-being and response to treatment. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a chest x-ray revealing increased density in all fields, diminished breath sounds auscultated bilaterally, and ABG results showing specific values do not directly correlate with the effectiveness of treatment for a pulmonary embolism. While these assessments are important for monitoring the client's condition, the client's subjective report of feeling less anxious provides a more direct insight into the impact of the treatment.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has tuberculosis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Place the client in a negative pressure room.
- B. Wear a surgical mask when entering the client's room.
- C. Place the client in droplet isolation.
- D. Place a surgical mask on the client when transporting them.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to place the client in a negative pressure room. This action is necessary to prevent the spread of tuberculosis, as it is transmitted via airborne particles. Placing the client in droplet isolation (choice C) is not sufficient for tuberculosis, as it requires airborne precautions. Wearing a surgical mask (choice B) when entering the client's room may not provide adequate protection against airborne transmission. Placing a surgical mask on the client when transporting them (choice D) does not address the need for environmental controls to contain infectious particles.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a total knee arthroplasty. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Place a pillow under the client's knees
- B. Keep the client's legs elevated
- C. Flex the client's knee every 2 hours
- D. Apply heat to the operative knee
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Keeping the client's legs elevated is the appropriate action to prevent venous thromboembolism following a total knee arthroplasty. Elevating the legs helps promote circulation and reduce the risk of blood clots. Placing a pillow under the client's knees may provide comfort but does not address the specific postoperative complication. Flexing the client's knee every 2 hours may be contraindicated as excessive movement can disrupt the surgical site. Applying heat to the operative knee is not recommended immediately postoperatively as it can increase swelling and discomfort.
5. A nurse is planning care for a client who had gastric bypass surgery 1 week ago and has signs of early dumping syndrome. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Facial flushing
- B. Syncope
- C. Diaphoresis
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Facial flushing is a common symptom of early dumping syndrome, which occurs when food moves too quickly into the small intestine. This rapid movement triggers the release of vasoactive peptides causing vasodilation, leading to facial flushing. Syncope (choice B) is not a typical finding in early dumping syndrome. Diaphoresis (choice C) and bradycardia (choice D) are also not characteristic symptoms of early dumping syndrome.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access