ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 day postoperative following a total knee replacement. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate of 88/min
- B. Serous drainage on the dressing
- C. Temperature 37.3°C (99.1°F)
- D. Calf pain on dorsiflexion
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Calf pain on dorsiflexion following knee surgery may indicate a complication such as deep vein thrombosis, which is a serious condition requiring medical attention. Reporting this finding promptly is crucial to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and C are within normal range for a client post knee surgery and do not typically indicate immediate complications that require urgent reporting.
2. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving dietary teaching from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will increase my intake of bananas.
- B. I will limit my intake of foods high in potassium.
- C. I will increase my intake of protein-rich foods.
- D. I will increase my intake of dairy products.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Limiting potassium-rich foods is crucial for clients with chronic kidney disease to prevent hyperkalemia, a common complication. Increasing intake of potassium-rich foods like bananas (choice A), protein-rich foods (choice C), or dairy products (choice D) can exacerbate hyperkalemia in these clients. Bananas, protein-rich foods, and dairy products are all high in potassium, which is detrimental for individuals with chronic kidney disease. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect.
3. A client with liver cirrhosis is experiencing confusion. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Bilirubin 0.8 mg/dL
- B. Ammonia 145 mcg/dL
- C. Albumin 4 g/dL
- D. Hemoglobin 13.5 g/dL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ammonia 145 mcg/dL. An elevated ammonia level can indicate hepatic encephalopathy in clients with liver cirrhosis, leading to confusion. Bilirubin (Choice A) is within the normal range, indicating adequate liver function. Albumin (Choice C) and Hemoglobin (Choice D) levels are also within normal limits and are not directly related to the client's confusion in this scenario.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?
- A. Sodium 140 mEq/L
- B. Calcium 9.5 mg/dL
- C. Potassium 5.2 mEq/L
- D. Magnesium 2.0 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 5.2 mEq/L. A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is elevated and should be monitored in clients taking spironolactone, which is a potassium-sparing medication. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial as spironolactone can cause hyperkalemia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because sodium, calcium, and magnesium levels are not typically affected by spironolactone. Therefore, the nurse should primarily focus on monitoring the potassium levels in this scenario.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has diaper dermatitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Apply zinc oxide ointment to the irritated area
- B. Wipe stool from the skin using store-bought baby wipes
- C. Apply talcum powder to the irritated area
- D. Apply a warm compress to the irritated area
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct answer: Applying zinc oxide ointment to the irritated area is the most appropriate action for diaper dermatitis. Zinc oxide is a barrier cream that helps protect the skin and promote healing. Choice B is incorrect because using store-bought baby wipes may contain chemicals or fragrances that can further irritate the skin. Choice C is incorrect as talcum powder can also worsen the condition by drying out the skin. Choice D is incorrect because a warm compress is not typically used for diaper dermatitis; it may provide relief for other conditions but is not the best option for diaper dermatitis.
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