ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam
1. When educating a client with early Parkinson's disease about pramipexole, what adverse effect should the nurse advise the client to monitor for?
- A. Hallucinations
- B. Increased salivation
- C. Diarrhea
- D. Discoloration of urine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hallucinations. Pramipexole can lead to hallucinations, especially within 9 months of starting the medication, and may necessitate discontinuation. Hallucinations are a serious adverse effect that the client should be aware of and report promptly to their healthcare provider for evaluation and management. Increased salivation (choice B), diarrhea (choice C), and discoloration of urine (choice D) are not common adverse effects associated with pramipexole and are not typically emphasized in client education for this medication.
2. A client informs a healthcare professional about taking Gingko Biloba. Which of the following medications is contraindicated for a client using Gingko Biloba?
- A. Acetaminophen
- B. Warfarin
- C. Digoxin
- D. Lisinopril
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Warfarin is contraindicated for a client taking Gingko Biloba due to the potential interaction that can lead to suppressed coagulation and an increased risk of bleeding or hemorrhage. Warfarin is an anticoagulant, and when combined with Gingko Biloba, which also has anticoagulant properties, the risk of bleeding complications is significantly heightened. Acetaminophen (Choice A), Digoxin (Choice C), and Lisinopril (Choice D) do not have significant interactions with Gingko Biloba compared to Warfarin. Acetaminophen is a pain reliever, Digoxin is a medication for heart conditions, and Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor for hypertension.
3. A client with chronic kidney disease has a new prescription for epoetin alfa. The nurse should instruct the client to increase dietary intake of which of the following substances?
- A. Iron
- B. Protein
- C. Potassium
- D. Sodium
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Patients with chronic kidney disease are often prescribed epoetin alfa to treat anemia. Epoetin alfa stimulates red blood cell production, increasing the body's demand for iron to support this process. Therefore, clients taking epoetin alfa should be advised to increase their dietary intake of iron-rich foods to meet the increased demand and prevent iron deficiency anemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while protein is essential for overall health, potassium and sodium intake may need to be restricted in clients with chronic kidney disease to manage electrolyte balance and blood pressure.
4. Which of the following drugs has a therapeutic effect that prevents thromboembolic events?
- A. Warfarin
- B. Amlodipine
- C. Nitroglycerin
- D. Clopidogrel
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Warfarin. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that helps prevent thromboembolic events by inhibiting the formation of blood clots. It is commonly used to reduce the risk of strokes or heart attacks in patients at risk for thrombosis.
5. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for a Fentanyl transdermal patch. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Apply the patch to a hairy area.
- B. Change the patch every 24 hours.
- C. Avoid exposure to heat sources.
- D. Cut the patch to adjust the dosage.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction that the nurse should include when providing discharge instructions for a client with a Fentanyl transdermal patch is to avoid exposure to heat sources. Heat can increase the absorption of the medication, leading to a risk of overdose. Choice A is incorrect because the patch should be applied to a clean, non-hairy area. Choice B is incorrect as the Fentanyl patch is usually changed every 72 hours, not every 24 hours. Choice D is incorrect as the patch should never be cut to adjust the dosage.
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