a nurse is caring for a client who has hiv and is beginning therapy with zidovudine the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adv
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ATI Pharmacology Quizlet

1. A client with HIV is starting therapy with zidovudine. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Fatigue is a common adverse effect of zidovudine due to its impact on bone marrow, leading to anemia. Zidovudine is known to cause bone marrow suppression, resulting in decreased production of red blood cells and subsequent fatigue.

2. A healthcare professional is educating a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following statements should the healthcare professional include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement that the healthcare professional should include when educating a client prescribed warfarin is to report any signs of bleeding to their healthcare provider. Bleeding can indicate excessive anticoagulation, which is a serious side effect of warfarin. Prompt reporting of bleeding symptoms is crucial to prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While avoiding foods high in vitamin K may be important when taking warfarin due to its interaction with the medication, it is not the priority over reporting signs of bleeding. Using a soft toothbrush and electric razor are general precautions for individuals on anticoagulants but are not as critical as reporting bleeding symptoms.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medication list of a client who has a new prescription for Digoxin to treat heart failure. Which of the following medications places the client at risk for Digoxin toxicity?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Loop diuretics, such as Furosemide, can increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity by causing hypokalemia. Hypokalemia enhances the toxic effects of Digoxin on the heart, leading to an increased risk of Digoxin toxicity. Spironolactone (Choice A) is less likely to cause hypokalemia and does not significantly increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity. Calcium channel blockers (Choice B) and ACE inhibitors (Choice D) do not directly increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity through hypokalemia; therefore, they are not the medications that place the client at risk for Digoxin toxicity.

4. A client with asthma has a new prescription for inhaled beclomethasone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Rinse the mouth after using the inhaler.' Rinsing the mouth after using inhaled beclomethasone is crucial to prevent fungal overgrowth in the mouth, a common side effect of corticosteroid inhalers. Checking the pulse after using the inhaler (Choice A) is not directly related to the use of beclomethasone. Taking the medication with food (Choice B) is not a specific instruction for inhaled beclomethasone. While reducing caffeine consumption (Choice D) can be beneficial for some health conditions, it is not a specific instruction related to using inhaled beclomethasone.

5. A client has a Cerebrospinal fluid infection with gram-negative bacteria. Which of the following Cephalosporin antibiotics should be administered IV to treat this infection?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In treating a Cerebrospinal fluid infection caused by gram-negative bacteria, Cefepime, a fourth-generation cephalosporin, is the most suitable choice due to its enhanced efficacy against gram-negative organisms in such infections. Cefaclor (Choice A) is a second-generation cephalosporin more commonly used for respiratory tract infections. Cefazolin (Choice B) is a first-generation cephalosporin often used for skin and soft tissue infections. Cephalexin (Choice D) is a first-generation cephalosporin indicated for skin and urinary tract infections, but not the optimal choice for a Cerebrospinal fluid infection with gram-negative bacteria.

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