a nurse is providing teaching to a client who is starting a new prescription for ferrous sulfate which of the following instructions should the nurse
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ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. A client is starting a new prescription for ferrous sulfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Take the medication with orange juice to enhance absorption.' Taking ferrous sulfate with orange juice helps enhance the absorption of iron due to the ascorbic acid present in the orange juice, which aids in iron absorption. This combination can help improve the effectiveness of the medication. Choice A, taking the medication with meals, may reduce gastrointestinal side effects but does not specifically enhance absorption. Choice B, taking the medication on an empty stomach, may lead to better absorption but can also increase the risk of gastrointestinal side effects. Choice D, taking the medication with a full glass of milk, is incorrect because calcium in milk can inhibit the absorption of iron.

2. A client has a new prescription for Calcitonin-salmon for Osteoporosis. Which of the following tests should the nurse tell the client to expect before beginning this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before starting Calcitonin-salmon, it is important to assess for any potential allergies as anaphylaxis can occur. A skin test is usually conducted to determine if the client is allergic to the medication. The nurse should also inquire about any previous allergies to fish, as Calcitonin-salmon is derived from salmon. Options B, C, and D are not necessary before initiating Calcitonin-salmon therapy. ECG is not directly related to this medication, Mantoux test is used to diagnose tuberculosis, and liver function tests are not specifically required before starting Calcitonin-salmon.

3. A client is taking Ritonavir, a protease inhibitor, to treat HIV infection. The nurse should monitor for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hyperlipidemia. Ritonavir, a protease inhibitor used in HIV treatment, can lead to hyperlipidemia, characterized by increased cholesterol and triglyceride levels. Monitoring lipid levels is crucial to identify and manage this potential adverse effect. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Ritonavir is not known to cause an increased TSH level, decreased ALT level, or hypoglycemia as adverse effects.

4. A healthcare professional is administering a Dopamine infusion at a low dose to a client with severe heart failure. Which of the following findings is an expected effect of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Dopamine, when administered at a low dose, is expected to increase myocardial contractility by stimulating beta1 receptors. This positive inotropic effect leads to an increase in cardiac output. Therefore, the correct answer is increased myocardial contractility, as it is a desired effect of administering dopamine to a client with severe heart failure.

5. A client is prescribed Bethanechol to treat urinary retention. Which of the following findings is a manifestation of muscarinic stimulation?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Bethanechol is a muscarinic agonist, which stimulates muscarinic receptors. Activation of these receptors can lead to increased sweating (excessive perspiration) as a manifestation of muscarinic stimulation. Options A, B, and D are not typically associated with muscarinic stimulation. Dry mouth is a common side effect of anticholinergic medications, hypertension is not a common manifestation of muscarinic stimulation, and fecal impaction is not directly related to muscarinic receptor activation.

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