a nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed amlodipine which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019

1. A client is prescribed Amlodipine. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker known to cause peripheral edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should monitor the client for swelling, particularly in the lower extremities, as it can indicate the development of this side effect. Choice A, Tachycardia, is not a common adverse effect of Amlodipine. Choice C, Hyperglycemia, is not typically associated with Amlodipine use. Choice D, Hypertension, is the condition Amlodipine is prescribed to treat, not an adverse effect of the medication.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer acetaminophen 650 mg PO every 6 hr PRN for pain. The amount available is acetaminophen liquid 500 mg/5 mL. How many mL should the healthcare professional administer per dose?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the volume to administer: (Desired dose / Concentration) = Volume to administer. In this case, (650 mg / 500 mg) x 5 mL = 6.5 mL. Therefore, the healthcare professional should administer 6.5 mL of acetaminophen per dose to achieve the desired 650 mg dose for pain relief. Choice A is correct because it accurately calculates the volume required based on the concentration of the liquid acetaminophen. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation based on the concentration of the liquid medication and the desired dose.

3. A healthcare provider is caring for several clients who came to the clinic for a seasonal influenza immunization. The provider should identify that which of the following clients is a candidate to receive the vaccine via nasal spray rather than an injection?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A 17-year-old can receive the influenza vaccine via nasal spray even if they have a hypersensitivity to penicillin, as this is not a contraindication for the influenza immunization. The nasal spray vaccine (LAIV) is a live attenuated vaccine that is suitable for healthy individuals aged 2-49 years. Pregnancy (choice C) is a contraindication for the nasal spray influenza vaccine. Children under 2 years of age (choice A) are also not candidates for the nasal spray. Taking a multivitamin supplement (choice D) is not a determining factor for the type of influenza vaccine a person should receive.

4. A client has a new prescription for Ferrous sulfate. Which of the following instructions should be included?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Take this medication on an empty stomach.' Ferrous sulfate is best absorbed on an empty stomach. Instruct the client to take it 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals to maximize absorption and avoid interactions with food or beverages that may decrease absorption. Choice A is incorrect because taking Ferrous sulfate with milk can decrease its absorption. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific benefit to taking it before bedtime. Choice D is incorrect as antacids can interfere with the absorption of Ferrous sulfate.

5. A healthcare professional is administering a Dopamine infusion at a low dose to a client with severe heart failure. Which of the following findings is an expected effect of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Dopamine, when administered at a low dose, is expected to increase myocardial contractility by stimulating beta1 receptors. This positive inotropic effect leads to an increase in cardiac output. Therefore, the correct answer is increased myocardial contractility, as it is a desired effect of administering dopamine to a client with severe heart failure.

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