Nursing Elites

1. A client is prescribed Amlodipine. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Peripheral edema
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker known to cause peripheral edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should monitor the client for swelling, particularly in the lower extremities, as it can indicate the development of this side effect. Choice A, Tachycardia, is not a common adverse effect of Amlodipine. Choice C, Hyperglycemia, is not typically associated with Amlodipine use. Choice D, Hypertension, is the condition Amlodipine is prescribed to treat, not an adverse effect of the medication.

2. A client who received Prochlorperazine 4 hours ago reports spasms of his face. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?

• A. Fomepizole
• B. Naloxone
• C. Phytonadione
• D. Diphenhydramine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client's symptoms of face spasms after receiving Prochlorperazine indicate acute dystonia, a known side effect. Diphenhydramine is commonly administered to manage extrapyramidal symptoms, such as muscle spasms, caused by medications like Prochlorperazine. Therefore, the nurse should anticipate a prescription for Diphenhydramine to alleviate the client's symptoms. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Fomepizole is used in methanol or ethylene glycol poisoning, Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used in opioid overdose, and Phytonadione is vitamin K, used to reverse the effects of certain blood thinners.

3. A client with chronic Neutropenia is receiving Filgrastim. What action should the nurse take to assess for an adverse effect of filgrastim?

• A. Assess for bone pain.
• B. Assess for right lower quadrant pain.
• C. Auscultate for crackles in the bases of the lungs.
• D. Auscultate the chest to listen for a heart murmur.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bone pain is a known adverse effect of Filgrastim, which is dose-related. By assessing for bone pain, the nurse can monitor for this common side effect. Acetaminophen and, if necessary, an opioid analgesic can be used to manage the bone pain associated with Filgrastim. Assessing for right lower quadrant pain, crackles in the bases of the lungs, or heart murmurs would not directly relate to the adverse effects of Filgrastim in a client with chronic Neutropenia.

4. A client has been taking Phenylephrine nasal drops for the past 10 days for Sinusitis. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

• A. Sedation
• B. Nasal congestion
• C. Productive cough
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Nasal congestion. After more than 5 days of use, nasal sympathomimetic medications like phenylephrine can lead to rebound nasal congestion. This occurs due to prolonged vasoconstriction of nasal blood vessels, causing worsening nasal congestion. Sedation (choice A) is not a common adverse effect of phenylephrine nasal drops. Productive cough (choice C) and constipation (choice D) are also not typical adverse effects associated with this medication.

5. A client is receiving combination chemotherapy. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of an oncologic emergency?

• A. Dry oral mucous membranes
• B. Nausea and vomiting
• C. Temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F)
• D. Anorexia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F) can indicate an infection, which is considered an oncologic emergency in clients receiving chemotherapy due to the increased risk of sepsis in immunocompromised individuals. Dry oral mucous membranes (Choice A), nausea and vomiting (Choice B), and anorexia (Choice D) are common side effects of chemotherapy but do not typically indicate an oncologic emergency requiring immediate intervention.

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