Nursing Elites

1. A client is starting therapy with filgrastim. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?

• A. Bone pain
• B. Constipation
• C. Tinnitus
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is starting therapy with filgrastim, monitoring for bone pain is essential. Filgrastim can lead to increased bone marrow activity, resulting in bone pain as a common adverse effect. Instructing the client to monitor and report any bone pain promptly can help in managing this side effect effectively.

2. When providing discharge instructions to a client with a new prescription for Lisinopril, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Avoid salt substitutes.
• B. Take this medication at bedtime.
• C. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• D. Take this medication with food.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to avoid salt substitutes. Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to hyperkalemia, so it is essential to avoid salt substitutes containing potassium, which can further increase potassium levels in the body. This instruction aims to prevent potential adverse effects and ensure the client's safety while taking Lisinopril. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Lisinopril is typically taken once a day in the morning, it can lead to hyperkalemia (so increasing potassium-rich foods is not advised), and it can be taken with or without food.

3. During an admission assessment for a client with severe Aspirin toxicity, what finding should the nurse expect?

• A. Body temperature 35°C (95°F)
• B. Lung crackles
• C. Cool, dry skin
• D. Respiratory depression

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In severe Aspirin toxicity, respiratory depression can occur due to increasing respiratory acidosis. Aspirin toxicity leads to metabolic acidosis, stimulating the respiratory center in the brain to increase the respiratory rate initially. However, as the toxicity worsens, respiratory muscle fatigue and depression can occur, resulting in respiratory depression. This can lead to hypoxia, respiratory failure, and ultimately, respiratory arrest.

4. A nurse manager is reviewing the facility's policies for IV therapy with the members of his team. The nurse manager should remind the team that which of the following techniques helps minimize the risk of catheter embolism?

• A. Performing hand hygiene before and after IV insertion
• B. Rotating IV sites at least every 72 hours
• C. Minimizing tourniquet time
• D. Avoiding reinserting the needle into an IV catheter

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To minimize the risk of catheter embolism, it is crucial to avoid reinserting the needle into an IV catheter. This practice can potentially sever the end of the catheter, leading to catheter embolism. Proper insertion techniques, securement, and avoiding unnecessary manipulations of the catheter can help prevent this serious complication.

5. A client who is receiving combination chemotherapy is exhibiting a temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F). Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of an oncologic emergency?

• A. Dry oral mucous membranes
• B. Nausea and vomiting
• C. Temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F)
• D. Anorexia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F) can indicate an infection, which is considered an oncologic emergency in clients undergoing chemotherapy due to the heightened risk of sepsis in immunocompromised individuals. Immediate assessment and intervention are crucial to prevent severe complications. Dry oral mucous membranes, nausea and vomiting, and anorexia are common side effects of chemotherapy but are not specific indicators of an oncologic emergency like a fever in this setting.

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