ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. A client with a new diagnosis of hypertension is receiving discharge teaching. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will take my medication only when I feel dizzy.
- B. I will check my blood pressure at least once a week.
- C. I will limit my saturated fat intake to 7% of daily calories.
- D. I will take my medication only when I have symptoms.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because limiting saturated fat intake to 7% of daily calories is a crucial component of the dietary management for hypertension. This dietary modification helps reduce the risk of cardiovascular complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect because medication adherence should not be based on symptoms like dizziness. Choice B is inadequate as blood pressure monitoring should be more frequent, preferably daily, for effective management of hypertension. Choice D is incorrect because medication for hypertension should be taken consistently as prescribed, not just when symptoms occur.
2. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
- A. Serum potassium 4.5 mEq/L
- B. Serum calcium 9.2 mg/dL
- C. Serum creatinine 2.5 mg/dL
- D. Serum albumin 3.5 g/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Elevated serum creatinine levels indicate impaired kidney function. As kidney disease progresses, the kidneys are less able to filter waste products, leading to an increase in creatinine levels. Therefore, a high serum creatinine level of 2.5 mg/dL should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not directly signify worsening kidney function in this context.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a continuous heparin infusion. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. Serum potassium
- B. Platelets
- C. aPTT
- D. INR
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: aPTT. Monitoring the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is crucial when a client is receiving heparin therapy. The aPTT reflects the clotting time and helps assess the effectiveness of heparin in preventing clot formation. Keeping the aPTT within the therapeutic range ensures that the medication is working optimally. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because serum potassium, platelets, and INR are not direct indicators of heparin's effectiveness or therapeutic range.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and is experiencing dyspnea. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Encourage the client to take deep breaths.
- B. Place the client in a high-Fowler's position.
- C. Administer a bronchodilator.
- D. Administer oxygen at 6 L/min via face mask.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to place the client in a high-Fowler's position. This position helps improve breathing by expanding the lungs and aiding in better oxygenation. Encouraging the client to take deep breaths may not be effective in managing dyspnea in COPD as it can lead to fatigue. Administering a bronchodilator may be necessary but placing the client in a high-Fowler's position should be the priority. Administering oxygen at 6 L/min via face mask may also be needed, but positioning is the initial intervention to optimize respiratory function.
5. A client has a new prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication with a potassium supplement.
- B. Avoid foods that contain potassium.
- C. Limit your fluid intake while taking this medication.
- D. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which means it helps the body retain potassium. Instructing the client to avoid foods high in potassium helps prevent hyperkalemia, a potential side effect of spironolactone. Choice A is incorrect because taking spironolactone with a potassium supplement can increase the risk of hyperkalemia. Choice C is not directly related to spironolactone use. Choice D is also incorrect as spironolactone does not need to be taken on an empty stomach.
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