ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN
1. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who is receiving heparin therapy for deep-vein thrombosis. Which of the following values should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. INR 2.0
- B. Platelet count 150,000/mm3
- C. aPTT 60 seconds
- D. WBC count 8,000/mm3
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: aPTT 60 seconds. An aPTT of 60 seconds is above the therapeutic range for clients on heparin therapy and indicates a risk of bleeding, so it should be reported to the provider. INR of 2.0 is within the therapeutic range for clients on heparin therapy, so it does not require immediate reporting. Platelet count of 150,000/mm3 and WBC count of 8,000/mm3 are within normal ranges and not directly related to heparin therapy, so they do not need to be reported in this context.
2. A patient is scheduled to receive a transfusion of packed RBCs. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Prime IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride
- B. Use a 24-gauge IV catheter
- C. Obtain filterless IV tubing
- D. Place blood in the warmer for 1 hour
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Priming the IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride is crucial before administering packed RBCs as it prevents hemolysis and ensures the safe transfusion of blood. Using a smaller 20- to 22-gauge IV catheter is recommended for packed RBCs to prevent hemolysis due to the small tubing size and faster flow rate. Obtaining filterless IV tubing is incorrect as blood products should be administered through a specialized filter to prevent potential clots or contaminants from reaching the patient. Placing blood in the warmer for an hour is unnecessary and could lead to overheating, potentially causing harm to the patient.
3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an autologous blood product to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take to identify the client?
- A. Match the client's identification band with the number on the blood unit
- B. Confirm the provider's prescription matches the number on the blood component
- C. Ask the client to state their blood type and confirm the date of their last blood donation
- D. Ensure that the client's identification band matches the number on the blood unit
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Ensuring that the client's identification band matches the number on the blood unit is crucial for correct identification. This action helps prevent errors by confirming that the blood product is indeed intended for the specific client. Matching the client's blood type with type and cross-match specimens (Choice A) is important for compatibility but does not directly verify the client's identity. Confirming the provider's prescription (Choice B) is relevant but does not ensure the correct identification of the client. Asking the client to state their blood type and confirm the date of their last blood donation (Choice C) relies on the client's memory and verbal confirmation, which may not be accurate or reliable for identification purposes.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a cholecystectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg
- B. Temperature of 37.2°C (99°F)
- C. Serosanguineous wound drainage
- D. Bile-colored drainage from the surgical site
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Bile-colored drainage from the surgical site can indicate a bile leak, which is an abnormal finding and should be reported. A blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg and a temperature of 37.2°C (99°F) are within normal ranges for a postoperative client. Serosanguineous wound drainage, which is a mix of blood and serum, is expected following a surgery like cholecystectomy. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are not findings that require immediate reporting.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has pneumonia and is receiving oxygen therapy. Which of the following findings indicates the need for suctioning?
- A. Increased respiratory rate.
- B. Oxygen saturation 96%.
- C. Clear lung sounds.
- D. Productive cough.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased respiratory rate. An increased respiratory rate suggests the client is having difficulty clearing secretions and may require suctioning. Oxygen saturation of 96% is within the normal range and indicates adequate oxygenation. Clear lung sounds suggest good air entry without the need for suctioning. A productive cough, although a symptom of pneumonia, does not directly indicate the need for suctioning.
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