ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN
1. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who is receiving heparin therapy for deep-vein thrombosis. Which of the following values should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. INR 2.0
- B. Platelet count 150,000/mm3
- C. aPTT 60 seconds
- D. WBC count 8,000/mm3
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: aPTT 60 seconds. An aPTT of 60 seconds is above the therapeutic range for clients on heparin therapy and indicates a risk of bleeding, so it should be reported to the provider. INR of 2.0 is within the therapeutic range for clients on heparin therapy, so it does not require immediate reporting. Platelet count of 150,000/mm3 and WBC count of 8,000/mm3 are within normal ranges and not directly related to heparin therapy, so they do not need to be reported in this context.
2. What is the appropriate action for a healthcare provider to take when a patient has a high fever and is disoriented?
- A. Administer acetaminophen
- B. Administer antibiotics
- C. Administer fluids
- D. Cool the patient with cold compresses
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Administering fluids is the appropriate action for a healthcare provider to take when a patient has a high fever and is disoriented. Dehydration can worsen confusion and other symptoms in such a situation. Administering acetaminophen or cooling the patient with cold compresses may help reduce the fever but does not address the underlying issue. Administering antibiotics is not indicated for a high fever and disorientation without knowing the cause.
3. A client post-thyroidectomy reports tingling in their lips and fingers. The nurse should identify this finding as an indication of which of the following complications?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hypocalcemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Tingling in the lips and fingers is a classic sign of hypocalcemia, which can occur as a complication following a thyroidectomy due to inadvertent damage to the parathyroid glands that regulate calcium levels. Hypokalemia (Choice A) presents with muscle weakness and cardiac issues, not tingling. Hyponatremia (Choice C) typically manifests with confusion, seizures, and muscle cramps. Hyperglycemia (Choice D) is associated with increased thirst, frequent urination, and fatigue.
4. Which lab value should be monitored for a patient on warfarin therapy?
- A. Monitor INR
- B. Monitor potassium levels
- C. Monitor platelet count
- D. Monitor sodium levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor INR for a patient on warfarin therapy. INR monitoring is crucial as it helps assess the therapeutic effectiveness and safety of warfarin. INR stands for International Normalized Ratio, and it measures the blood's ability to clot. Monitoring potassium levels (Choice B) is not specific to warfarin therapy. Monitoring platelet count (Choice C) is important but not the primary lab value for assessing warfarin therapy. Monitoring sodium levels (Choice D) is not directly related to warfarin therapy.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?
- A. Serum sodium.
- B. Serum glucose.
- C. Serum potassium.
- D. Serum calcium.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium. Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic, meaning it can lead to potassium loss in the body. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to evaluate the effectiveness of furosemide and prevent hypokalemia. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not directly affect sodium, glucose, or calcium levels in the same way it impacts potassium levels.
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