a nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who is receiving heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis which of the following values should
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN

1. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who is receiving heparin therapy for deep-vein thrombosis. Which of the following values should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: aPTT 60 seconds. An aPTT of 60 seconds is above the therapeutic range for clients on heparin therapy and indicates a risk of bleeding, so it should be reported to the provider. INR of 2.0 is within the therapeutic range for clients on heparin therapy, so it does not require immediate reporting. Platelet count of 150,000/mm3 and WBC count of 8,000/mm3 are within normal ranges and not directly related to heparin therapy, so they do not need to be reported in this context.

2. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A potassium level of 5.0 mEq/L is at the upper limit of normal and should be monitored closely in clients taking spironolactone, which is potassium-sparing. Elevated potassium levels can lead to hyperkalemia, especially in individuals on potassium-sparing diuretics like spironolactone. Monitoring and reporting high potassium levels are crucial to prevent potential complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Blood pressure (choice B), sodium level (choice C), and calcium level (choice D) are not directly related to the use of spironolactone and do not require immediate reporting in this scenario.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving a continuous heparin infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because an INR of 1.0 is below the therapeutic range for clients receiving heparin, indicating a potential need for dosage adjustment. Platelet count (choice A) within normal range, aPTT (choice B) within therapeutic range, and hemoglobin level (choice C) are not directly related to the monitoring of heparin therapy and would not require immediate reporting to the provider.

4. What is the appropriate action for a patient experiencing a severe allergic reaction?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer epinephrine. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for severe allergic reactions as it helps reverse the symptoms rapidly by constricting blood vessels, increasing heart rate, and opening airways. Antihistamines (Choice B) may help with mild allergic reactions but are not effective for severe cases. Corticosteroids (Choice C) are used to reduce inflammation and are typically not the first-line treatment for acute severe allergic reactions. Administering oxygen (Choice D) may be necessary to support breathing in severe cases, but epinephrine is the primary treatment to reverse the allergic reaction symptoms.

5. While caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Checking the client's blood glucose level every 4 hours is essential when managing a client on TPN to monitor for hyperglycemia, a common complication. Monitoring urine output (Choice A) is important but not a priority in this scenario. Administering a bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride (Choice B) is not indicated as it is unrelated to managing TPN. Flushing the TPN line with sterile water (Choice D) is necessary, but it should be done with 0.9% sodium chloride, not water.

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