a nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who is receiving heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis which of the following values should
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN

1. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who is receiving heparin therapy for deep-vein thrombosis. Which of the following values should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: aPTT 60 seconds. An aPTT of 60 seconds is above the therapeutic range for clients on heparin therapy and indicates a risk of bleeding, so it should be reported to the provider. INR of 2.0 is within the therapeutic range for clients on heparin therapy, so it does not require immediate reporting. Platelet count of 150,000/mm3 and WBC count of 8,000/mm3 are within normal ranges and not directly related to heparin therapy, so they do not need to be reported in this context.

2. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for clopidogrel. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Monitor for signs of infection.' Clopidogrel affects platelet levels, increasing the risk of bleeding. Therefore, it is essential for clients taking clopidogrel to monitor for signs of infection, which could indicate a lowered immune response. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the specific monitoring needs associated with clopidogrel therapy.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving packed RBCs. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to infuse the blood within 4 hours. This is crucial to prevent bacterial contamination and hemolysis during blood transfusions. Monitoring the client's blood glucose level every hour (Choice A) is not directly related to packed RBC transfusions. Administering the blood using a microdrip set (Choice B) may be appropriate for specific medications but is not a requirement for packed RBC transfusions. Assessing the client's vital signs every 2 hours (Choice C) is important for monitoring the client's overall condition but is not as time-sensitive as ensuring the timely infusion of packed RBCs.

4. A nurse is assessing a newborn's heart rate. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Auscultating the apical pulse and counting for one minute is the appropriate method to accurately measure a newborn's heart rate. The apical pulse is located at the point of maximum impulse (PMI), which is usually at the fourth or fifth intercostal space along the mid-clavicular line. This method allows for a precise assessment of the newborn's heart rate. Choice B, placing a sensor on the index finger, is incorrect because this method is more suitable for measuring oxygen saturation rather than heart rate. Choice C, heating the skin prior to placing the probe, is unnecessary for assessing heart rate and may lead to potential burns in newborns. Choice D, rechecking after 10 minutes, is not appropriate as immediate assessment and intervention may be required if an abnormal heart rate is detected in a newborn.

5. What is the recommended dietary restriction for a patient with chronic kidney disease?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to limit fluid intake for a patient with chronic kidney disease. This restriction helps manage fluid balance to prevent fluid overload. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Limiting potassium intake is essential for some patients with kidney disease, but it is not the primary dietary restriction. Increasing protein intake is usually not recommended due to the impaired kidney function in these patients. Increasing carbohydrate intake is also not a standard recommendation for patients with chronic kidney disease.

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