Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the medication record of a client with chronic kidney disease. Which of the following medications should the nurse question?

• A. Calcium carbonate
• B. Furosemide
• C. Epoetin alfa
• D. Spironolactone

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Spironolactone. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which may lead to hyperkalemia in clients with chronic kidney disease. Therefore, its use should be questioned in this population. Choice A, Calcium carbonate, is commonly used to manage phosphate levels in chronic kidney disease. Choice B, Furosemide, is a loop diuretic that helps with fluid retention but should be used with caution in kidney disease. Choice C, Epoetin alfa, is a medication used to stimulate red blood cell production in clients with chronic kidney disease and anemia.

2. A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Measure the client's blood glucose level every 6 hours
• B. Change the TPN tubing every 24 hours
• C. Weigh the client weekly
• D. Administer the TPN through a peripheral IV line

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is to change the TPN tubing every 24 hours. This practice helps reduce the risk of infection in clients receiving parenteral nutrition. Measuring the client's blood glucose level every 6 hours is important for clients on insulin therapy or with diabetes, but it is not directly related to TPN administration. Weighing the client weekly is essential for monitoring fluid status and nutritional progress, but it is not specific to TPN care. Administering TPN through a peripheral IV line is incorrect because TPN solutions are hypertonic and can cause phlebitis or thrombosis if administered through a peripheral line; a central venous access is typically used for TPN administration.

3. A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has angina. What risk factor should the nurse identify?

• A. Hyperlipidemia.
• B. COPD.
• C. Seizure disorder.
• D. Hyponatremia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hyperlipidemia. Hyperlipidemia, characterized by high levels of lipids in the blood, is a well-established risk factor for the development of angina. Elevated lipid levels can lead to atherosclerosis, which narrows the arteries supplying the heart muscle with oxygenated blood, increasing the risk of angina. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because COPD, seizure disorder, and hyponatremia are not directly associated with an increased risk of angina.

4. What is the primary purpose of administering insulin to a patient with diabetes?

• A. Regulate blood glucose levels
• B. Increase metabolism
• C. Prevent complications
• D. Promote insulin sensitivity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Regulate blood glucose levels.' Administering insulin to a patient with diabetes helps regulate blood glucose levels by facilitating the uptake of glucose into cells, thereby lowering high blood sugar levels. This process aims to prevent hyperglycemia and its associated complications. Choice B, 'Increase metabolism,' is incorrect as the primary role of insulin is not to increase metabolism directly. Choice C, 'Prevent complications,' is partially correct as regulating blood glucose through insulin administration does help prevent complications associated with uncontrolled diabetes, but it is not the primary purpose. Choice D, 'Promote insulin sensitivity,' is incorrect as insulin itself is administered to compensate for the lack of endogenous insulin in diabetic patients, rather than to promote sensitivity to it.

5. A client is receiving opioid analgesics for pain management. Which of the following assessments is the priority?

• A. Monitor the client's blood pressure.
• B. Check the client's urinary output.
• C. Monitor the client's respiratory rate.
• D. Assess the client's pain level.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor the client's respiratory rate. When a client is receiving opioid analgesics, the priority assessment is monitoring respiratory rate. Opioids can cause respiratory depression, so it is crucial to assess the client's breathing to detect any signs of respiratory distress promptly. Checking the client's blood pressure (Choice A) and urinary output (Choice B) are important assessments too, but they are not the priority when compared to ensuring adequate respiratory function. Assessing the client's pain level (Choice D) is essential for overall care but is not the priority assessment when the client is on opioids, as respiratory status takes precedence.

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