Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a school-age child with a urinary tract infection. Which symptom should the nurse expect?

• A. Periorbital edema.
• B. Decreased frequency of urination.
• C. Enuresis.
• D. Diarrhea.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Enuresis is a common symptom of urinary tract infections in school-age children. It is often a presenting symptom due to irritation of the bladder. Periorbital edema (Choice A) is more indicative of conditions like nephrotic syndrome or renal disorders. Decreased frequency of urination (Choice B) is not typically associated with urinary tract infections. Diarrhea (Choice D) is not a common symptom of urinary tract infections but may occur due to other reasons like gastrointestinal infections.

2. A client has a new prescription for captopril. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication with food.
• B. You may experience a persistent dry cough.
• C. Increase your intake of foods high in potassium.
• D. You should avoid eating grapefruit while taking this medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A persistent dry cough is a common side effect of captopril, an ACE inhibitor, and should be included in the teaching. Choice A is incorrect because captopril is usually taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because captopril can increase potassium levels, so there is no need to further increase potassium intake. Choice D is incorrect because captopril does not interact with grapefruit.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has dehydration. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Bradycardia.
• B. Increased skin turgor.
• C. Tachycardia.
• D. Bounding pulse.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tachycardia. Tachycardia is a common sign of dehydration because the body tries to compensate for the reduced fluid volume by increasing the heart rate. Bradycardia (choice A) is not typically seen in dehydration as the body tries to maintain perfusion. Increased skin turgor (choice B) is actually a sign of dehydration, but tachycardia is a more specific finding. A bounding pulse (choice D) is associated with conditions like hyperthyroidism or aortic regurgitation, not dehydration.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving morphine via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. The nurse should identify that which of the following findings is a manifestation of opioid toxicity?

• A. Bradypnea.
• B. Tachycardia.
• C. Hypertension.
• D. Diaphoresis.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Bradypnea, or slow breathing, is a common sign of opioid toxicity. When a client is experiencing opioid toxicity, the respiratory system is usually the most affected, leading to a decrease in the respiratory rate (bradypnea). Tachycardia (increased heart rate), hypertension (high blood pressure), and diaphoresis (excessive sweating) are not typical manifestations of opioid toxicity. Therefore, the correct answer is bradypnea.

5. What is the best position for a patient with respiratory distress?

• A. Semi-Fowler's position
• B. Trendelenburg position
• C. Prone position
• D. Supine position

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best position for a patient with respiratory distress is the Semi-Fowler's position. This position promotes lung expansion and improves oxygenation by allowing the chest to expand more fully. The Trendelenburg position, where the patient's feet are higher than the head, is contraindicated in respiratory distress as it can increase pressure on the diaphragm and compromise breathing. The prone position, lying face down, may be beneficial in certain cases like acute respiratory distress syndrome but is not generally recommended for all patients in respiratory distress. The supine position, lying flat on the back, can worsen respiratory distress by causing the tongue to fall back and obstruct the airway.

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