a nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client who has rheumatoid arthritis and is prescribed methotrexate which of the following results should
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2023

1. A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client who has rheumatoid arthritis and is prescribed methotrexate. Which of the following results should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 60 units/L. An elevated AST level indicates liver damage, which can be a side effect of methotrexate and should be reported. Elevated white blood cell count (choice A), platelet count (choice B), or normal hemoglobin level (choice C) are not directly related to methotrexate therapy for rheumatoid arthritis.

2. A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is being taught about dietary management by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with GERD is to avoid eating spicy foods. Spicy foods can trigger GERD symptoms by irritating the esophagus and increasing acid reflux. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Eating three large meals each day can exacerbate GERD symptoms by putting pressure on the lower esophageal sphincter, lying down after meals can worsen reflux due to gravity, and increasing dairy product intake may lead to higher fat consumption, which can also trigger GERD symptoms.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer heparin subcutaneously to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when preparing to administer heparin subcutaneously is to administer the medication within 5 cm (2 in) of the umbilicus. This practice ensures proper subcutaneous delivery of the medication. Choice A is incorrect because a smaller gauge needle, typically 25-26 gauge, is used for subcutaneous injections. Choice B is incorrect as heparin should not be injected into the deltoid muscle but rather into fatty tissue. Choice D is incorrect as massaging the injection site after administration can lead to tissue irritation or bruising.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an autologous blood product to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take to identify the client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ensuring that the client's identification band matches the number on the blood unit is crucial for correct identification. This action helps prevent errors by confirming that the blood product is indeed intended for the specific client. Matching the client's blood type with type and cross-match specimens (Choice A) is important for compatibility but does not directly verify the client's identity. Confirming the provider's prescription (Choice B) is relevant but does not ensure the correct identification of the client. Asking the client to state their blood type and confirm the date of their last blood donation (Choice C) relies on the client's memory and verbal confirmation, which may not be accurate or reliable for identification purposes.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing acute pain. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Diaphoresis. Diaphoresis, which is excessive sweating, is a common manifestation of acute pain caused by increased sympathetic nervous system activity. This response is the body's way of trying to regulate body temperature during the stress response. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypertension (Choice A) and tachycardia (not bradycardia as in Choice B) are more likely responses to acute pain due to sympathetic nervous system activation. Piloerection (Choice D), also known as goosebumps, is not a typical manifestation of acute pain.

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