ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam 2023
1. How should a healthcare provider respond to a patient refusing treatment for religious reasons?
- A. Respect the patient's beliefs
- B. Attempt to persuade the patient
- C. Provide education on treatment benefits
- D. Document the refusal and notify the provider
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Respecting the patient's beliefs is crucial in providing patient-centered care. Attempting to persuade the patient may violate their autonomy and decision-making capacity, leading to a breakdown in trust. Providing education on treatment benefits may be appropriate in other situations but is not the best approach when a patient refuses treatment based on religious reasons. Documenting the refusal and notifying the provider are important steps to ensure proper continuity of care, but the primary response should be to respect the patient's beliefs to maintain a trusting relationship and uphold ethical standards.
2. A client with diabetes mellitus receiving regular insulin should be monitored for which of the following manifestations of hypoglycemia?
- A. Bradycardia.
- B. Dry skin.
- C. Increased thirst.
- D. Increased urinary output.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Bradycardia. Bradycardia is a common sign of hypoglycemia, which can occur as a complication of insulin therapy in clients with diabetes mellitus. Dry skin (choice B) is not typically associated with hypoglycemia. Increased thirst (choice C) and increased urinary output (choice D) are symptoms more commonly seen in conditions like hyperglycemia or diabetes insipidus, not hypoglycemia.
3. A client with iron deficiency anemia has a new prescription for ferrous sulfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take with a glass of milk to prevent stomach upset.
- B. Take with orange juice to enhance absorption.
- C. Take on an empty stomach to increase absorption.
- D. Take with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction is to take ferrous sulfate on an empty stomach to increase absorption. This is because taking it with food or dairy products like milk can reduce its absorption. Orange juice is not recommended as it may interfere with the absorption of iron. Taking ferrous sulfate on an empty stomach may cause gastrointestinal upset, but this can be minimized by gradually increasing the dose.
4. A nurse is planning care for a client who had gastric bypass surgery 1 week ago and has signs of early dumping syndrome. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Facial flushing
- B. Syncope
- C. Diaphoresis
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Facial flushing is a common symptom of early dumping syndrome, which occurs when food moves too quickly into the small intestine. This rapid movement triggers the release of vasoactive peptides causing vasodilation, leading to facial flushing. Syncope (choice B) is not a typical finding in early dumping syndrome. Diaphoresis (choice C) and bradycardia (choice D) are also not characteristic symptoms of early dumping syndrome.
5. A client has a new prescription for captopril. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication with food.
- B. You may experience a persistent dry cough.
- C. Increase your intake of foods high in potassium.
- D. You should avoid eating grapefruit while taking this medication.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A persistent dry cough is a common side effect of captopril, an ACE inhibitor, and should be included in the teaching. Choice A is incorrect because captopril is usually taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because captopril can increase potassium levels, so there is no need to further increase potassium intake. Choice D is incorrect because captopril does not interact with grapefruit.
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