Nursing Elites

1. How should a healthcare provider respond to a patient refusing treatment for religious reasons?

• A. Respect the patient's beliefs
• B. Attempt to persuade the patient
• C. Provide education on treatment benefits
• D. Document the refusal and notify the provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Respecting the patient's beliefs is crucial in providing patient-centered care. Attempting to persuade the patient may violate their autonomy and decision-making capacity, leading to a breakdown in trust. Providing education on treatment benefits may be appropriate in other situations but is not the best approach when a patient refuses treatment based on religious reasons. Documenting the refusal and notifying the provider are important steps to ensure proper continuity of care, but the primary response should be to respect the patient's beliefs to maintain a trusting relationship and uphold ethical standards.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has Crohn's disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Weight gain.
• B. Bloody stools.
• C. Urinary retention.
• D. Abdominal distention.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bloody stools. Bloody stools are a common symptom of Crohn's disease, characterized by inflammation of the digestive tract. Weight gain (choice A) is less likely due to malabsorption issues associated with Crohn's disease. Urinary retention (choice C) is not directly related to Crohn's disease. Abdominal distention (choice D) may occur in Crohn's disease but is not as specific a finding as bloody stools.

3. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

• A. Potassium
• B. Sodium
• C. Calcium
• D. Hemoglobin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is prescribed furosemide, monitoring potassium levels is crucial due to the drug's potential to cause hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes potassium excretion in the urine, leading to a risk of low potassium levels. Monitoring potassium levels helps in detecting and preventing hypokalemia, which can result in adverse effects like cardiac dysrhythmias. Sodium, calcium, and hemoglobin levels are usually not directly affected by furosemide, making them less pertinent for monitoring in this specific scenario.

4. A client with COPD is receiving discharge teaching. Which statement indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will avoid breathing deeply while using my incentive spirometer.
• B. I will limit my fluid intake to 1 liter per day.
• C. I will exercise in an area that is humid.
• D. I will use pursed-lip breathing techniques.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Using pursed-lip breathing techniques is beneficial for clients with COPD as it helps control shortness of breath by keeping airways open longer. Option A is incorrect as deep breathing while using an incentive spirometer is essential to prevent complications such as atelectasis. Option B is incorrect because limiting fluid intake to 1 liter per day is not a standard recommendation for clients with COPD. Option C is incorrect as exercising in a humid area can exacerbate breathing difficulties for clients with COPD.

5. A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting thirty diazepam tablets. After securing the client's airway and initiating an IV, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?

• A. Monitor the client's IV site for thrombophlebitis
• B. Administer flumazenil to the client
• C. Evaluate the client for further suicidal behavior
• D. Initiate seizure precautions for the client

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In cases of benzodiazepine overdose, such as diazepam ingestion, flumazenil is the antidote. Therefore, the priority action for the nurse is to administer flumazenil to the client. Monitoring the IV site for thrombophlebitis (Choice A) is important but not the immediate priority. Evaluating the client for further suicidal behavior (Choice C) is important but not the next immediate action. Initiating seizure precautions (Choice D) is not the priority as the client's airway has already been secured.

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