a nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition tpn which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monito
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam

1. A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Serum albumin level. Monitoring the serum albumin level helps assess the nutritional effectiveness of total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Serum albumin is a protein that reflects the long-term nutritional status of a patient. Serum calcium level (choice A) is not directly related to TPN effectiveness. Blood glucose level (choice B) is important to monitor in diabetic patients but is not the primary indicator of TPN efficacy. Serum sodium level (choice D) is more related to fluid balance and electrolyte status rather than the effectiveness of TPN.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and reports nausea. The nurse should identify that this client is at risk for which of the following imbalances?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Metabolic acidosis. Clients with chronic kidney disease are at risk for metabolic acidosis because the kidneys are unable to effectively excrete acids, leading to an accumulation of acid in the body. This metabolic imbalance can result in symptoms like nausea. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Metabolic alkalosis is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease. Respiratory alkalosis is more commonly seen in conditions such as hyperventilation. Respiratory acidosis, on the other hand, is often linked to conditions affecting the lungs or respiratory system, not primarily kidney disease.

3. Which electrolyte imbalance is most common in patients receiving furosemide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly leads to potassium loss in the urine, causing hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in patients taking furosemide. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypercalcemia, hyponatremia, and hyperkalemia are not typically associated with furosemide use.

4. A client has a new prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which means it helps the body retain potassium. Instructing the client to avoid foods high in potassium helps prevent hyperkalemia, a potential side effect of spironolactone. Choice A is incorrect because taking spironolactone with a potassium supplement can increase the risk of hyperkalemia. Choice C is not directly related to spironolactone use. Choice D is also incorrect as spironolactone does not need to be taken on an empty stomach.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is 32 weeks pregnant and has cardiac disease. Which of the following positions should the nurse place the client in to promote optimal cardiac output?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Left lateral. Placing the client in the left lateral position helps promote optimal cardiac output during pregnancy by avoiding pressure on the vena cava. This position improves venous return to the heart and subsequently cardiac output. Option A, Semi-Fowler's position, may not be the best choice for a client with cardiac disease as it does not alleviate pressure on the vena cava. Option B, supine with head elevated, can also compress the vena cava, reducing cardiac output. Option D, right lateral position, does not provide the same benefits as the left lateral position for cardiac output during pregnancy.

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