a nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition tpn which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monito
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam

1. A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Serum albumin level. Monitoring the serum albumin level helps assess the nutritional effectiveness of total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Serum albumin is a protein that reflects the long-term nutritional status of a patient. Serum calcium level (choice A) is not directly related to TPN effectiveness. Blood glucose level (choice B) is important to monitor in diabetic patients but is not the primary indicator of TPN efficacy. Serum sodium level (choice D) is more related to fluid balance and electrolyte status rather than the effectiveness of TPN.

2. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An elevated bilirubin level in clients with cirrhosis indicates worsening liver function and potential complications. It is crucial to report this finding promptly as it may require immediate medical intervention. Elevated ammonia levels (choice A) are also concerning in cirrhosis, indicating hepatic encephalopathy, but bilirubin levels are more specific to liver function in this context. Choices B and C are within normal ranges and are not typically of immediate concern in cirrhosis.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a fecal impaction. Which action should the nurse take when digitally evacuating the stool?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action when digitally evacuating a fecal impaction is to insert a lubricated gloved finger and advance along the rectal wall. This technique helps prevent trauma and effectively dislodge the impacted stool. Choice B, applying lubricant and stimulating peristalsis, is incorrect as it does not directly address the evacuation of the impacted stool. Choice C, applying pressure to the abdomen, is inappropriate and may cause discomfort or harm to the client. Choice D, increasing fluid intake before the procedure, is not directly related to the immediate evacuation of the fecal impaction.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor. The FHR baseline has been 100/min for the past 15 minutes. What condition should the nurse suspect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the FHR baseline of 100/min for the past 15 minutes indicates fetal bradycardia, which can be caused by maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal hypoglycemia can lead to decreased oxygen supply to the fetus, resulting in fetal bradycardia. Maternal fever (Choice A) typically presents with tachycardia in the fetus rather than bradycardia. Fetal anemia (Choice B) is more likely to manifest as tachycardia due to compensation for decreased oxygen delivery. Chorioamnionitis (Choice D) may lead to fetal tachycardia as a sign of fetal distress, not bradycardia.

5. A client has a new ileostomy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Changing the entire pouching system weekly is essential for maintaining skin integrity and preventing infection. Option A is incorrect as applying a skin barrier should be done during the pouch change, not separately. Option B is incorrect as ileostomy pouches should be emptied when they are one-third to one-half full to prevent leakage. Option D is incorrect because cleansing the peristomal skin with alcohol can be too harsh and may cause skin irritation.

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