ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is preparing to perform tracheostomy care for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Apply a sterile dressing.
- B. Suction the tracheostomy.
- C. Remove the inner cannula.
- D. Clean the stoma with sterile saline.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Suctioning the tracheostomy should be performed first to clear the airway of secretions and ensure proper oxygenation before proceeding with other care. This helps maintain a patent airway and prevent complications such as aspiration. Applying a sterile dressing, removing the inner cannula, or cleaning the stoma can follow after ensuring adequate airway clearance through suctioning.
2. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include during discharge teaching?
- A. Avoid prolonged exposure to sunlight.
- B. Take this medication with a meal.
- C. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
- D. Limit your fluid intake to 1 liter per day.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking furosemide is to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, so increasing potassium-rich foods helps prevent hypokalemia. Choice A, avoiding prolonged exposure to sunlight, is not directly related to furosemide use. Choice B, taking the medication with a meal, is not a specific requirement for furosemide administration. Choice D, limiting fluid intake to 1 liter per day, is not the correct advice as furosemide is a diuretic that often requires increased fluid intake to prevent dehydration.
3. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has been diagnosed with sepsis. Which of the following laboratory results indicates that the client is developing disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
- A. Elevated hemoglobin
- B. Elevated white blood cell count
- C. Decreased fibrinogen level
- D. Decreased platelet count
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, decreased platelet count. In disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), there is widespread activation of clotting factors leading to the formation of multiple blood clots throughout the body, which can deplete platelets. A decreased platelet count is a hallmark of DIC. Elevated hemoglobin (choice A) and elevated white blood cell count (choice B) are not specific indicators of DIC. While fibrinogen levels (choice C) can be decreased in DIC due to consumption, a decreased platelet count is a more specific and early sign of DIC development.
4. A nurse is preparing an in-service for a group of nurses about malpractice issues in nursing. Which of the following examples should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Leaving a nasogastric tube clamped after administering oral medication.
- B. Documenting communication with a provider in the progress notes of the client's medical records.
- C. Administering potassium via IV bolus.
- D. Placing a yellow bracelet on a client who is at risk for falls.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Administering potassium via IV bolus is a malpractice issue due to the risk of cardiac complications. Option A is incorrect as leaving a nasogastric tube clamped after administering oral medication can lead to complications but is not directly linked to malpractice. Option B is incorrect as documenting communication with a provider in the progress notes is a necessary part of nursing practice. Option D is incorrect as placing a yellow bracelet on a client at risk for falls is a safety measure to prevent falls and is not related to malpractice issues.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who is 48 hours postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Serosanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing.
- B. Temperature of 37.8°C (100°F).
- C. Urine output of 75 mL in the past 4 hours.
- D. WBC count of 15,000/mm³.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. An elevated WBC count can indicate a potential infection, especially in a postoperative client. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and C are common occurrences in postoperative clients and may not necessarily indicate a severe issue. Serosanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing is a normal finding in the immediate postoperative period. A temperature of 37.8°C (100°F) can be a mild fever, which is common postoperatively due to the body's response to tissue injury. Urine output of 75 mL in the past 4 hours may be within normal limits for a postoperative client, especially if they are still recovering from anesthesia.
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