Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has COPD and is receiving oxygen therapy at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. Which of the following findings should the provider report?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 95%.
• B. Productive cough with clear sputum.
• C. Respiratory rate of 22/min.
• D. Client reports dyspnea.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Dyspnea in a client with COPD receiving oxygen should be reported as it may indicate worsening respiratory status. Oxygen saturation of 95% is within the expected range for a client receiving oxygen therapy and does not require immediate reporting. A productive cough with clear sputum is a common symptom in clients with COPD and does not necessarily warrant urgent reporting. A respiratory rate of 22/min is also within normal limits and does not raise immediate concerns in this scenario.

2. How should a healthcare provider monitor a patient with fluid overload?

• A. Monitor daily weight
• B. Check for edema
• C. Monitor input and output
• D. Monitor blood pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring daily weight is crucial in assessing fluid retention accurately in a patient with fluid overload. Changes in weight can indicate fluid accumulation or loss, providing valuable information for healthcare providers. Checking for edema (choice B) is important but may not always accurately reflect total body fluid status. Monitoring input and output (choice C) and blood pressure (choice D) are also essential aspects of patient assessment, but they may not directly reflect the extent of fluid overload as effectively as monitoring daily weight.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Contractions lasting 80 seconds.
• B. FHR baseline 170/min.
• C. Early decelerations in the FHR.
• D. Temperature 37.4°C (99.3°F).

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. An FHR baseline of 170/min is considered tachycardia, which is above the normal range during labor and requires immediate attention. High FHR can indicate fetal distress or maternal fever. Choice A, contractions lasting 80 seconds, are within normal range for active labor. Choice C, early decelerations in the FHR, are usually benign and do not typically require immediate intervention. Choice D, a temperature of 37.4°C (99.3°F), is within normal limits.

4. What is the best intervention for a patient with dehydration?

• A. Administer IV fluids
• B. Provide oral fluids
• C. Encourage fluid intake
• D. Administer electrolytes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering IV fluids is the best intervention for a patient with dehydration because it is the fastest and most effective way to rehydrate the body. IV fluids can quickly restore fluid volume and electrolyte balance in severe cases of dehydration. Providing oral fluids or encouraging fluid intake may not be sufficient for patients with moderate to severe dehydration, as they may have impaired gastrointestinal absorption. While electrolytes are essential for rehydration, administering them alone without fluid replacement may not address the primary issue of fluid loss in dehydration.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing a panic attack. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Bradycardia.
• B. Hypotension.
• C. Chest pain.
• D. Dilated pupils.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a panic attack, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, leading to physiological responses such as dilated pupils. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) and hypotension (low blood pressure) are not typically associated with panic attacks. While chest pain can occur during a panic attack due to rapid breathing and muscle tension, dilated pupils are a more specific finding related to sympathetic activation in this context.

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