ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2024
1. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. White blood cell count 6,000/mm3
- B. Positive antinuclear antibody (ANA) titer
- C. Platelet count 220,000/mm3
- D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 15 mg/dL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A positive antinuclear antibody (ANA) titer is a significant finding in clients with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) as it indicates active disease. This result should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, C, and D are within normal ranges and not specifically indicative of disease activity in SLE. Therefore, they do not require immediate reporting to the provider.
2. A client with a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus is being taught about foot care by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Soak your feet in warm water every day to prevent dryness.
- B. Trim your toenails straight across to prevent injury.
- C. Apply lotion between your toes after bathing.
- D. Wear cotton socks to keep your feet dry.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Trim your toenails straight across to prevent injury.' In clients with diabetes, trimming toenails straight across is essential to prevent ingrown toenails and injury. Choice A is incorrect because soaking feet in warm water can lead to dryness, which is not recommended for diabetic foot care. Choice C is incorrect as applying lotion between the toes can create excess moisture, increasing the risk of fungal infections. Choice D is incorrect because although cotton socks are recommended, the primary purpose is to prevent moisture buildup, not specifically to keep the feet dry.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer an intermittent enteral feeding to a client who has an NG tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Heat the feeding to 105°F (40.6°C).
- B. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees.
- C. Flush the tube with 0.9% sodium chloride.
- D. Verify the pH of the gastric aspirate.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Verifying the pH of the gastric aspirate is the correct action to take before administering an intermittent enteral feeding through an NG tube. This step ensures proper tube placement in the stomach, as the gastric aspirate should have an acidic pH (usually below 5). Heating the feeding solution, elevating the head of the bed, or flushing the tube with saline are not directly related to verifying tube placement and are not the immediate actions needed before administering the feeding.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure and is receiving digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of digoxin toxicity?
- A. Bradycardia.
- B. Tachycardia.
- C. Nausea.
- D. Blurred vision.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Blurred vision is a classic sign of digoxin toxicity, indicating a potential overdose. It is crucial to recognize this symptom promptly and report it to the healthcare provider for immediate intervention. Bradycardia and nausea are common side effects of digoxin but not specific indicators of toxicity. Tachycardia is unlikely in digoxin toxicity since it usually causes a decrease in heart rate.
5. A healthcare provider is providing dietary teaching to a client who has osteoporosis. Which of the following foods should the healthcare provider recommend as the best source of calcium?
- A. Broccoli
- B. Cheddar cheese
- C. Almonds
- D. Fortified orange juice
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Cheddar cheese is a rich source of calcium and should be recommended to clients with osteoporosis. While broccoli and almonds also contain calcium, cheddar cheese provides a higher amount per serving. Fortified orange juice may contain added calcium, but it is not as concentrated a source as cheddar cheese. Therefore, the best choice for a client with osteoporosis seeking a high calcium food is cheddar cheese.
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