a nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has systemic lupus erythematosus sle which of the following findings should the nurse repo
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2024

1. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A positive antinuclear antibody (ANA) titer is a significant finding in clients with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) as it indicates active disease. This result should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, C, and D are within normal ranges and not specifically indicative of disease activity in SLE. Therefore, they do not require immediate reporting to the provider.

2. A healthcare professional is reviewing the results of an ABG performed on a client with chronic emphysema. Which of the following results suggests the need for further treatment?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A high PaCO2 level (55 mm Hg) in a client with chronic emphysema suggests respiratory acidosis, which requires further treatment. In chronic emphysema, impaired gas exchange leads to elevated carbon dioxide levels in the blood. Option A (PaO2 level of 89 mm Hg) is near the normal range and does not indicate immediate treatment. Option C (HCO3 level of 25 mEq/L) and option D (pH level of 7.37) are within normal limits and do not suggest the need for further treatment in this context.

3. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A potassium level of 5.0 mEq/L is at the upper limit of normal and should be monitored closely in clients taking spironolactone, which is potassium-sparing. Elevated potassium levels can lead to hyperkalemia, especially in individuals on potassium-sparing diuretics like spironolactone. Monitoring and reporting high potassium levels are crucial to prevent potential complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Blood pressure (choice B), sodium level (choice C), and calcium level (choice D) are not directly related to the use of spironolactone and do not require immediate reporting in this scenario.

4. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following statements indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Eating more leafy green vegetables can increase vitamin K intake, which may reduce the effectiveness of warfarin. This can lead to fluctuations in the International Normalized Ratio (INR) levels, affecting the medication's efficacy. Choices A, C, and D are correct statements. Taking warfarin every other day, using a soft toothbrush to prevent gum bleeding, and having regular INR checks are all appropriate and important actions when taking warfarin.

5. A client with a history of heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 3.2 mEq/L. A potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is below the normal range and should be monitored in clients receiving furosemide due to the risk of hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are not directly impacted by furosemide therapy in the same way as potassium levels, making them less relevant for monitoring in this scenario.

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