Nursing Elites

1. A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Heart rate of 80/min.
• B. Weight loss of 1.1 kg (2.5 lb) in 24 hours.
• C. Potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L.
• D. Urine output of 60 mL/hr.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A weight loss of 1.1 kg (2.5 lb) in 24 hours may indicate dehydration or fluid imbalance, which should be reported. This rapid weight loss could be a sign of excessive diuresis, potentially leading to hypovolemia or electrolyte imbalances. Monitoring weight changes is crucial in clients with heart failure receiving diuretics. The other findings are within normal ranges and expected in a client receiving furosemide for heart failure. A heart rate of 80/min, a potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L, and a urine output of 60 mL/hr are generally acceptable in this scenario.

2. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has acute pancreatitis. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare provider expect to be elevated?

• A. Serum sodium.
• B. Serum calcium.
• C. Serum glucose.
• D. Serum amylase.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Serum amylase levels are typically elevated in clients with acute pancreatitis as it is an enzyme released by the pancreas. Elevated serum sodium, calcium, or glucose levels are not typically associated with acute pancreatitis. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect.

3. A client at 14 weeks gestation reports feelings of ambivalence about being pregnant. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. Describe your feelings to me about being pregnant.
• B. You should discuss your feelings with your provider.
• C. Have you discussed these feelings with your partner?
• D. When did you start having these feelings?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is to use open-ended questions that allow the client to explore and express their feelings. Choice A encourages the client to describe their feelings, fostering open communication and providing an opportunity for the client to express themselves freely. Choices B and C do not directly address the client's feelings and may not promote open communication. Choice D focuses on the timing of the feelings rather than exploring the feelings themselves, making it a less therapeutic response.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Barrel-shaped chest
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Increased respiratory rate
• D. Tracheal deviation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: An increased respiratory rate is a common finding in clients with ARDS as the body attempts to compensate for impaired gas exchange. Barrel-shaped chest (Choice A) is associated with conditions like COPD, not ARDS. Bradycardia (Choice B) is unlikely in ARDS due to the body's compensatory mechanisms to improve oxygenation. Tracheal deviation (Choice D) is not typically seen in ARDS and is more suggestive of other respiratory conditions.

5. A nurse is developing a care plan for a client who is receiving nitroprusside for severe hypertension. Which action should the nurse include?

• A. Administer calcium gluconate at the bedside.
• B. Monitor blood pressure every 2 hours.
• C. Limit light exposure to the infusion.
• D. Keep the client on NPO status.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should include in the care plan for a client receiving nitroprusside for severe hypertension is to limit light exposure to the infusion. Nitroprusside is light-sensitive, so it should be protected from light exposure to prevent degradation. Administering calcium gluconate at the bedside is not directly related to nitroprusside administration. Monitoring blood pressure every 2 hours is a good practice but is not specifically related to the administration of nitroprusside. Keeping the client on NPO status is not necessary solely based on receiving nitroprusside.

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