ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is preparing to administer an intermittent tube feeding to a client who has a gastrostomy tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Flush the tube with 10 mL of water after feeding
- B. Flush the tube with 30 mL of water before feeding
- C. Place the client in a left lateral position
- D. Place the feeding bag 61 cm (24 in) above the client's abdomen
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when preparing to administer an intermittent tube feeding to a client with a gastrostomy tube is to flush the tube with 30 mL of water before feeding. This step helps ensure the patency of the tube by clearing any blockages or residuals. Choice A is incorrect because flushing after feeding would not prevent clogging before the feeding. Choice C is unrelated to tube feeding administration. Choice D is incorrect as the height for the feeding bag is usually recommended to be at or below the level of the stomach to prevent complications like aspiration.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who has diabetes mellitus and is experiencing hypoglycemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Diaphoresis
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Diaphoresis. Diaphoresis, which is excessive sweating, is a common sign of hypoglycemia due to the activation of the sympathetic nervous system. Tachycardia (choice A) is more commonly associated with hyperglycemia. Dry mouth (choice B) is not a typical finding in hypoglycemia but may be seen in hyperglycemia. Increased appetite (choice D) is not a typical sign of hypoglycemia and is more commonly associated with hyperglycemia.
3. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning in a patient on furosemide?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion by increasing its excretion in the urine. Hypokalemia is a common and concerning side effect of furosemide therapy. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is less likely as furosemide tends to lower potassium levels. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is more commonly seen with thiazide diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not directly associated with furosemide use.
4. How should a healthcare provider respond to a patient with a history of hypertension who is non-compliant with medication?
- A. Encourage compliance through education
- B. Contact the healthcare provider
- C. Document the refusal
- D. Explore alternative treatment options
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Encouraging compliance through education is crucial in helping patients understand the importance of consistent medication use. By providing education, the patient can make informed decisions about their health and better manage their condition. Contacting the healthcare provider (choice B) may be necessary in some cases, but the initial approach should focus on patient education. Documenting the refusal (choice C) is important for legal and medical records but does not address the root cause of non-compliance. Exploring alternative treatment options (choice D) should come after efforts to educate and encourage compliance with the current medication regimen.
5. A nurse is preparing to administer dopamine hydrochloride 4 mcg/kg/min via continuous infusion. The client weighs 80 kg. How many mL/hr should the nurse set the IV infusion to deliver?
- A. 6 mL/hr
- B. 8 mL/hr
- C. 12 mL/hr
- D. 16 mL/hr
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the correct rate, use the formula: (4 mcg/kg/min * 80 kg) / 800 mcg in 250 mL = 6 mL/hr. This calculation is based on the dose ordered (4 mcg/kg/min) multiplied by the patient's weight in kg (80 kg), divided by the concentration of the drug available (800 mcg in 250 mL) to be infused over 1 hour. Therefore, the correct answer is 6 mL/hr. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the provided information.
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