Nursing Elites

1. A client who is 2 hours postpartum following a cesarean birth has a history of thromboembolic disease. Which of the following nursing interventions should be included in the plan of care?

• A. Apply warm, moist heat to the client's lower extremities.
• B. Massage the client's posterior lower legs.
• C. Place pillows under the client's knees when resting in bed.
• D. Have the client ambulate.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client who is 2 hours postpartum following a cesarean birth with a history of thromboembolic disease is to have the client ambulate. Early ambulation is crucial in preventing complications such as deep vein thrombosis in postpartum clients. Applying warm, moist heat, massaging the legs, or placing pillows under the knees do not directly address the risk of thromboembolic disease in this scenario.

2. A client at 37 weeks of gestation with placenta previa asks the nurse why the provider does not do an internal examination. Which of the following explanations of the primary reason should the nurse provide?

• A. There is an increased risk of introducing infection.
• B. This could initiate preterm labor.
• C. This could result in profound bleeding.
• D. There is an increased risk of rupture of the membranes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Performing an internal examination in a client with placenta previa can lead to significant bleeding due to the proximity of the placenta to the cervical os. This bleeding can be severe and potentially life-threatening. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid any unnecessary manipulation that could disrupt the delicate balance and lead to hemorrhage.

3. A client at 37 weeks of gestation with severe gestational hypertension is being admitted by a nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse NOT expect to implement?

• A. Administer magnesium sulfate IV.
• B. Provide a dark, quiet environment.
• C. Assess respiratory status every 4 hours.
• D. Ensure that calcium gluconate is readily available.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing respiratory status every 4 hours is not a priority for a client with severe gestational hypertension. In this scenario, the focus should be on monitoring blood pressure, assessing for signs of preeclampsia, administering medications like magnesium sulfate for seizure prophylaxis, and ensuring that calcium gluconate is readily available in case of magnesium toxicity. Respiratory status assessment is important in other conditions but is not directly related to managing severe gestational hypertension.

4. A newborn is born to a mother with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes. The newborn is macrosomic and presents with respiratory distress syndrome. The most likely cause of the respiratory distress is which of the following?

• A. Hyperinsulinemia
• B. Increased deposits of fat in the chest and shoulder area
• C. Brachial plexus injury
• D. Increased blood viscosity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is hyperinsulinemia. In infants born to mothers with poorly controlled diabetes, the excess glucose crosses the placenta, leading to fetal hyperglycemia. This results in fetal hyperinsulinemia, which in turn can cause macrosomia (large birth weight), increasing the risk of respiratory distress syndrome due to the immature lungs' inability to handle the increased workload. Hyperinsulinemia, not increased deposits of fat, brachial plexus injury, or increased blood viscosity, is the most likely cause of respiratory distress in this scenario.

5. A client with severe preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate IV at 2 g/hr. Which of the following findings indicates that it is safe to continue the infusion?

• A. Diminished deep-tendon reflexes
• B. Respiratory rate of 16/min
• C. Urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours
• D. Heart rate of 56/min

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 16/min within the normal range is an essential parameter to monitor when administering magnesium sulfate, as respiratory depression is a potential adverse effect. Diminished deep-tendon reflexes may indicate magnesium toxicity, warranting immediate intervention. A urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours is below the expected amount, suggesting decreased kidney perfusion, which can be exacerbated by magnesium sulfate. A heart rate of 56/min is bradycardic and may indicate magnesium toxicity, requiring assessment and possible discontinuation of the infusion.

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