Nursing Elites

1. A client who is 2 hours postpartum following a cesarean birth has a history of thromboembolic disease. Which of the following nursing interventions should be included in the plan of care?

• A. Apply warm, moist heat to the client's lower extremities.
• B. Massage the client's posterior lower legs.
• C. Place pillows under the client's knees when resting in bed.
• D. Have the client ambulate.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client who is 2 hours postpartum following a cesarean birth with a history of thromboembolic disease is to have the client ambulate. Early ambulation is crucial in preventing complications such as deep vein thrombosis in postpartum clients. Applying warm, moist heat, massaging the legs, or placing pillows under the knees do not directly address the risk of thromboembolic disease in this scenario.

2. A client who experienced a cesarean birth due to dysfunctional labor expresses disappointment for not having a natural childbirth. Which response should the nurse make?

• A. Validate the client's feelings by saying, 'It sounds like you are feeling sad that things didn't go as planned.'
• B. Assure the client by stating, 'At least you know you have a healthy baby.'
• C. Encourage the client by suggesting, 'Maybe next time you can have a vaginal delivery.'
• D. Provide information by saying, 'You can resume sexual relations sooner than if you had delivered vaginally.'

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is to acknowledge and validate the client's feelings of disappointment. This empathetic approach demonstrates understanding and support for the client's emotional state, fostering a therapeutic nurse-client relationship. Options B, C, and D do not address the client's emotional needs or provide appropriate support in this situation.

3. A client in labor at 40 weeks of gestation has saturated two perineal pads in the past 30 min. The nurse suspects placenta previa. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing action?

• A. Examination to determine cervical status
• B. A magnesium sulfate infusion
• C. Initiation of pushing
• D. Preparation for cesarean birth

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the scenario described, the client is experiencing heavy vaginal bleeding, which is concerning for placenta previa. The appropriate nursing action in this situation is to prepare for a cesarean birth. Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, which can lead to life-threatening bleeding during labor. It is crucial to avoid vaginal examinations or initiation of pushing as these actions can exacerbate bleeding. A magnesium sulfate infusion is not indicated in the management of placenta previa. Therefore, the priority intervention is to prepare for a cesarean birth to ensure the safety of the mother and the baby.

4. A client at 10 weeks of gestation reports abdominal pain and moderate vaginal bleeding. The tentative diagnosis is inevitable abortion. Which of the following nursing interventions should be included in the plan of care?

• A. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula
• B. Offer option to view products of conception
• C. Instruct the client to increase potassium-rich foods in the diet
• D. Maintain the client on bed rest

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Offering the client the option to view products of conception after an inevitable abortion can provide closure and support the grieving process. It allows the client to have a visual confirmation of the pregnancy loss, which can aid in emotional healing. Administering oxygen is not a priority in this scenario as there is no indication of respiratory distress. Instructing the client to increase potassium-rich foods is not directly related to managing an inevitable abortion. Bed rest may be recommended, but offering the option to view products of conception is a more appropriate intervention at this time.

5. A woman at 38 weeks of gestation and in early labor with ruptured membranes has an oral temperature of 38.9�C (102�F). Besides notifying the provider, which of the following is an appropriate nursing action?

• A. Recheck the client's temperature in 4 hours
• B. Administer glucocorticoids intramuscularly
• C. Assess the odor of the amniotic fluid
• D. Prepare the client for emergency cesarean section

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a pregnant woman with a temperature of 38.9�C (102�F) in early labor with ruptured membranes, assessing the odor of the amniotic fluid is crucial. Foul-smelling or malodorous amniotic fluid could indicate infection, such as chorioamnionitis, which poses risks to both the woman and the fetus. This assessment can help in determining if an infection is present and prompt appropriate interventions. Rechecking the temperature, administering glucocorticoids, or preparing for an emergency cesarean section are not the most immediate or appropriate actions in this scenario.

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