Nursing Elites

1. A client in labor at 40 weeks of gestation has saturated two perineal pads in the past 30 min. The nurse suspects placenta previa. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing action?

• A. Examination to determine cervical status
• B. A magnesium sulfate infusion
• C. Initiation of pushing
• D. Preparation for cesarean birth

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the scenario described, the client is experiencing heavy vaginal bleeding, which is concerning for placenta previa. The appropriate nursing action in this situation is to prepare for a cesarean birth. Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, which can lead to life-threatening bleeding during labor. It is crucial to avoid vaginal examinations or initiation of pushing as these actions can exacerbate bleeding. A magnesium sulfate infusion is not indicated in the management of placenta previa. Therefore, the priority intervention is to prepare for a cesarean birth to ensure the safety of the mother and the baby.

2. When caring for a newborn with macrosomia born to a mother with diabetes mellitus, which newborn complication should the nurse prioritize care for?

• A. Hypoglycemia
• B. Hypomagnesemia
• C. Hyperbilirubinemia
• D. Hypocalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In newborns of diabetic mothers with macrosomia, hypoglycemia is the priority focus of care due to the risk of developing low blood sugar levels after birth. Infants born to diabetic mothers are at risk of hypoglycemia because they have been exposed to high glucose levels in utero and produce high levels of insulin. Hypoglycemia can lead to serious complications if not promptly identified and managed, making it crucial for nurses to closely monitor blood glucose levels and provide necessary interventions to prevent adverse outcomes.

3. During the admission assessment of a client at 38 weeks of gestation with severe preeclampsia, what would the nurse expect as a finding?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Absence of clonus
• C. Polyuria
• D. Report of headache

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Severe preeclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria after 20 weeks of gestation. Headache is a common symptom in clients with severe preeclampsia due to cerebral edema or vasospasm. Tachycardia (Choice A) is not typically associated with severe preeclampsia. Clonus (Choice B) is a sign of hyperactive reflexes, often seen in clients with severe preeclampsia. Polyuria (Choice C) is not a typical finding in clients with severe preeclampsia.

4. A client at 22 weeks of gestation with uncontrolled gestational diabetes mellitus may require medication. Which of the following medications would the provider likely prescribe?

• A. Acarbose
• B. Repaglinide
• C. Glyburide
• D. Glipizide

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Glyburide is commonly prescribed for gestational diabetes mellitus when diet and exercise are insufficient to control blood sugar levels. It is considered safe and effective during pregnancy, making it a suitable choice for managing diabetes in pregnant individuals. Acarbose, Repaglinide, and Glipizide are not typically recommended for use in pregnancy due to potential risks to the fetus.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease has arterial blood gas values being reviewed by a nurse. Which of the following sets of values should the nurse expect?

• A. pH 7.25, HCO3- 19 mEq/L, PaCO2 30 mm Hg
• B. pH 7.30, HCO3- 26 mEq/L, PaCO2 50 mm Hg
• C. pH 7.50, HCO3- 20 mEq/L, PaCO2 32 mm Hg
• D. pH 7.55, HCO3- 30 mEq/L, PaCO2 31 mm Hg

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In chronic kidney disease, metabolic acidosis is common due to impaired kidney function leading to reduced bicarbonate excretion. The correct values indicating metabolic acidosis in this scenario are a low pH (acidosis), low bicarbonate (HCO3-) level, and low PaCO2 (compensation through respiratory alkalosis). Therefore, the expected values for a client with chronic kidney disease would be pH 7.25, HCO3- 19 mEq/L, PaCO2 30 mm Hg, as depicted in choice A.

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