Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is caring for a group of clients on an intrapartum unit. Which of the following findings should be reported to the provider immediately?

• A. A tearful client who is at 32 weeks of gestation and is experiencing irregular, frequent contractions
• B. A client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and receiving terbutaline reports fine tremors
• C. A client who has a diagnosis of preeclampsia has 2+ proteinuria and 2+ patellar reflexes
• D. A client who has a diagnosis of preeclampsia reports epigastric pain and an unresolved headache

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is a client who has a diagnosis of preeclampsia reporting epigastric pain and an unresolved headache. These symptoms indicate severe preeclampsia, which requires immediate medical attention due to the potential risks of complications such as HELLP syndrome or eclampsia. The other options describe concerning situations but do not represent immediate life-threatening conditions like those seen in severe preeclampsia.

2. A client at 37 weeks of gestation with placenta previa asks the nurse why the provider does not do an internal examination. Which of the following explanations of the primary reason should the nurse provide?

• A. There is an increased risk of introducing infection.
• B. This could initiate preterm labor.
• C. This could result in profound bleeding.
• D. There is an increased risk of rupture of the membranes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Performing an internal examination in a client with placenta previa can lead to significant bleeding due to the proximity of the placenta to the cervical os. This bleeding can be severe and potentially life-threatening. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid any unnecessary manipulation that could disrupt the delicate balance and lead to hemorrhage.

3. A client who is 4 hours postpartum following a vaginal delivery is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as the priority?

• A. Saturated perineal pad in 30 minutes
• B. Deep tendon reflexes 4+
• C. Fundus at the level of the umbilicus
• D. Approximated edges of episiotomy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client who is 4 hours postpartum, a saturated perineal pad within 30 minutes is a priority finding as it may indicate excessive postpartum bleeding (hemorrhage), which requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications such as hypovolemic shock. Deep tendon reflexes being 4+ is within normal limits postpartum. The fundus at the level of the umbilicus is an expected finding at this time frame, indicating proper involution of the uterus. Approximated edges of an episiotomy suggest proper healing.

4. A client is admitted to the emergency room with a respiratory rate of 7/min. Arterial blood gases (ABG) reveal the following values. Which of the following is an appropriate analysis of the ABGs? pH 7.22, PaCO2 68 mm Hg, Base excess -2, PaO2 78 mm Hg, Saturation 80%, Bicarbonate 26 mEq/L

• A. Respiratory acidosis
• B. Metabolic acidosis
• C. Metabolic alkalosis
• D. Respiratory alkalosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The ABG values provided indicate respiratory acidosis. In respiratory acidosis, there is an increase in PaCO2 above the normal range (35-45 mm Hg) leading to a decrease in pH (<7.35). In this case, the pH is 7.22 (below normal) with an elevated PaCO2 of 68 mm Hg. The other values do not suggest metabolic acidosis (which would typically show low bicarbonate levels) or metabolic alkalosis. Therefore, the correct interpretation of the ABGs is respiratory acidosis.

5. A nurse in an antepartum unit is triaging clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?

• A. A client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and reports a cough and fever
• B. A client who has missed a period and reports vaginal spotting
• C. A client who is at 14 weeks of gestation and reports nausea and vomiting
• D. A client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and reports of painless vaginal bleeding

Correct answer: D

Rationale:

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