Nursing Elites

1. A client in a prenatal clinic is being taught by a nurse in her second trimester with a new diagnosis of gestational diabetes. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I should limit my carbohydrates to 50% of caloric intake.
• B. I will reduce my exercise schedule to 3 days a week.
• C. I will take my glyburide daily with breakfast.
• D. I know I am at increased risk of developing type 2 diabetes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B, 'I will reduce my exercise schedule to 3 days a week,' indicates a need for further teaching. Regular exercise is beneficial in managing gestational diabetes and should not be reduced without proper guidance. Choices A, C, and D demonstrate understanding and appropriate actions in managing gestational diabetes.

2. When admitting a client at 33 weeks of gestation with a diagnosis of placenta previa, which action should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Monitor vaginal bleeding
• B. Administer glucocorticoids
• C. Insert an IV catheter
• D. Apply an external fetal monitor

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to potential bleeding. When admitting a client with placenta previa, the priority is to assess the fetal well-being. Applying an external fetal monitor helps in continuous monitoring of the fetal heart rate and ensures timely detection of any distress or changes in the fetal status, which is crucial in managing this condition. While monitoring vaginal bleeding is important, identifying fetal well-being takes precedence in this situation.

3. A client at 37 weeks of gestation with placenta previa asks the nurse why the provider does not do an internal examination. Which of the following explanations of the primary reason should the nurse provide?

• A. There is an increased risk of introducing infection.
• B. This could initiate preterm labor.
• C. This could result in profound bleeding.
• D. There is an increased risk of rupture of the membranes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Performing an internal examination in a client with placenta previa can lead to significant bleeding due to the proximity of the placenta to the cervical os. This bleeding can be severe and potentially life-threatening. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid any unnecessary manipulation that could disrupt the delicate balance and lead to hemorrhage.

4. A client with acute respiratory failure (ARF) may present with which of the following manifestations? (Select one that doesn't apply.)

• A. Severe dyspnea
• B. Decreased level of consciousness
• C. Headache
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In acute respiratory failure (ARF), the body is not getting enough oxygen, leading to respiratory distress. Symptoms of ARF typically include severe dyspnea (difficulty breathing), decreased level of consciousness due to hypoxia, and headache from inadequate oxygenation to the brain. Nausea is not a typical manifestation of ARF and would not be expected in this condition.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who has respiratory acidosis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect?

• A. HCO3- 30 mEq/L
• B. PaCO2 50 mm Hg
• C. pH 7.45
• D. Potassium 3.3 mEq/L

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In respiratory acidosis, the primary disturbance is an increase in PaCO2 levels above the normal range of 35-45 mm Hg. Option B, PaCO2 50 mm Hg, indicates an elevated partial pressure of carbon dioxide, which is consistent with respiratory acidosis. Options A, C, and D are not directly indicative of respiratory acidosis. HCO3- (Option A) is more related to metabolic acidosis or alkalosis, pH (Option C) is within the normal range indicating no acid-base imbalance, and potassium (Option D) levels are not specific to respiratory acidosis.

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