Nursing Elites

1. A client with severe preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate IV at 2 g/hr. Which of the following findings indicates that it is safe to continue the infusion?

• A. Diminished deep-tendon reflexes
• B. Respiratory rate of 16/min
• C. Urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours
• D. Heart rate of 56/min

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 16/min within the normal range is an essential parameter to monitor when administering magnesium sulfate, as respiratory depression is a potential adverse effect. Diminished deep-tendon reflexes may indicate magnesium toxicity, warranting immediate intervention. A urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours is below the expected amount, suggesting decreased kidney perfusion, which can be exacerbated by magnesium sulfate. A heart rate of 56/min is bradycardic and may indicate magnesium toxicity, requiring assessment and possible discontinuation of the infusion.

2. A client with chronic kidney disease has arterial blood gas values being reviewed by a nurse. Which of the following sets of values should the nurse expect?

• A. pH 7.25, HCO3- 19 mEq/L, PaCO2 30 mm Hg
• B. pH 7.30, HCO3- 26 mEq/L, PaCO2 50 mm Hg
• C. pH 7.50, HCO3- 20 mEq/L, PaCO2 32 mm Hg
• D. pH 7.55, HCO3- 30 mEq/L, PaCO2 31 mm Hg

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In chronic kidney disease, metabolic acidosis is common due to impaired kidney function leading to reduced bicarbonate excretion. The correct values indicating metabolic acidosis in this scenario are a low pH (acidosis), low bicarbonate (HCO3-) level, and low PaCO2 (compensation through respiratory alkalosis). Therefore, the expected values for a client with chronic kidney disease would be pH 7.25, HCO3- 19 mEq/L, PaCO2 30 mm Hg, as depicted in choice A.

3. A nurse in an antepartum unit is triaging clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?

• A. A client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and reports a cough and fever
• B. A client who has missed a period and reports vaginal spotting
• C. A client who is at 14 weeks of gestation and reports nausea and vomiting
• D. A client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and reports of painless vaginal bleeding

Correct answer: D

Rationale:

4. When admitting a client at 33 weeks of gestation with a diagnosis of placenta previa, which action should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Monitor vaginal bleeding
• B. Administer glucocorticoids
• C. Insert an IV catheter
• D. Apply an external fetal monitor

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to potential bleeding. When admitting a client with placenta previa, the priority is to assess the fetal well-being. Applying an external fetal monitor helps in continuous monitoring of the fetal heart rate and ensures timely detection of any distress or changes in the fetal status, which is crucial in managing this condition. While monitoring vaginal bleeding is important, identifying fetal well-being takes precedence in this situation.

5. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an injection of Rho (D) immunoglobulin. The provider should understand that the purpose of this injection is to prevent which of the following newborn complications?

• A. Hydrops fetalis
• B. Hypobilirubinemia
• C. Biliary atresia
• D. Transient clotting difficulties

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Rho (D) immunoglobulin is given to Rh-negative individuals to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) caused by Rh incompatibility between the mother and the fetus. If an Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus, there is a risk of sensitization during pregnancy or childbirth. Sensitization can lead to the production of antibodies that may attack Rh-positive red blood cells in future pregnancies, potentially causing severe hemolytic disease in the newborn, including complications like hydrops fetalis. Hydrops fetalis is a condition characterized by severe edema and fetal organ enlargement due to severe anemia and heart failure in the fetus.

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